KJVO, NIV vs KJV vs WHATEVER...

Who knew about this mistranslation factoid?

  • I wasn't aware.

  • Yes I did.


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The Thadman

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I think that this entire debate, along with the KJV-Only debates are completely silly.

Here's the final nail:

Exodus 3:14

KING JAMES VERSION
And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you.

NEW INTERNATIONAL VERSION
God said to Moses, "I am who I am . This is what you are to say to the Israelites: 'I AM has sent me to you.' "


GUESS WHAT?

Both mistranslate the Hebrew:

"EHYEH ASHER EHYEH"

Which means:

"I WILL BE WHO I WILL BE."

I ask, for the sake of not quarreling amongst eachother, that this whole KJVO and KJV vs NIV thing stop. If it doesn't stop, I charge you all in our Messiah's name to end the madness! :)

Shlomo! (Peace!)
 

Blade

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Originally posted by The Thadman
I think that this entire debate, along with the KJV-Only debates are completely silly.

Here's the final nail:

Exodus 3:14






GUESS WHAT?

Both mistranslate the Hebrew:

"EHYEH ASHER EHYEH"

Which means:

"I WILL BE WHO I WILL BE."

I ask, for the sake of not quarreling amongst eachother, that this whole KJVO and KJV vs NIV thing stop. If it doesn't stop, I charge you all in our Messiah's name to end the madness! :)

Shlomo! (Peace!)

Madness? lol  It has been also I am that (who or what, some which)I am.

I am that which I am, I am that I am, I am who I am, I am he who is, I am the one who always is, now this is just from 16 different versions total. Now there are not 16 listed here because some of these are the same in other versions (bibles). You make is sound like YOU are right and even these 16 versions are wrong. My KJV  side notes say (Eheyeh, I am that (who or what) I am-I am the Self-existent One, the Eternal, who always has been and always will be Ps 90:2. Its shortened here to "I AM, equivalent to Jehovah. Yes in JESUS name
 
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The Thadman

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Originally posted by Blade
You make is sound like YOU are right and even these 16 versions are wrong. My KJV  side notes say (Eheyeh, I am that (who or what) I am-I am the Self-existent One, the Eternal, who always has been and always will be Ps 90:2. Its shortened here to "I AM, equivalent to Jehovah. Yes in JESUS name

The Hebrew text is the only thing that is right here.

It uses the future tense of the verb "hayah" (or "to be").

In other words, "I am that I am" would be "Hayah asher Hayah." :)

"I am that I am" comes from Septuagint tradition, where the Greek translators changed the tense of the verb.

In this case it seems that both translations come from a translation of a translation and those 16 versions are rooted in Greek tradition. :)

Hayah is not where YHWH ("Iahovah") comes from. YHWH is derived from the verb hayah and -this- is where the "Self-existent One, the Eternal, who always has been and always will be" comes into play. That's what YHWH means. :)

The funnier thing is that where it says in the Hebrew "Tell them that I AM has sent you" is where YHWH comes into play. More accurately, it's derived from the 3rd person "I will be" (EHYEH) to "He will be"/"He, the self existing"/"He who always has been and always will be" (YHWH).

This is why I think the KJV vs NIV debate is silly :)


Shlomo! (Peace!)
 
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The Thadman

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Exodus 3:16 reads (taking all of this into consideration):

14 God said to Moses, "EHYEH asher EHYEH"; and He said, "Thus you shall say to the sons of Israel, `YHWH has sent me to you.' "

In other words:

14 God said to Moses, "I WILL BE WHO I WILL BE"; and He said, "Thus you shall say to the sons of Israel, `'HE WILL BE' has sent me to you.' "

Shlomo! (Peace!)
 
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Jephunneh

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Is this verse missing in your Bible?

NIV

Acts 8

34The eunuch asked Philip, "Tell me, please, who is the prophet talking about, himself or someone else?" 35Then Philip began with that very passage of Scripture and told him the good news about Jesus.
36As they traveled along the road, they came to some water and the eunuch said, "Look, here is water. Why shouldn't I be baptized?" 38And he gave orders to stop the chariot. Then both Philip and the eunuch went down into the water and Philip baptized him. 39When they came up out of the water, the Spirit of the Lord suddenly took Philip away, and the eunuch did not see him again, but went on his way rejoicing. 40Philip, however, appeared at Azotus and traveled about, preaching the gospel in all the towns until he reached Caesarea.
© Copyright 1973, 1978, 1984 by International Bible Society
All rights reserved worldwide





KJV

Acts8

34 And the eunuch answered Philip, and said, I pray thee, of whom speaketh the prophet this? of himself, or of some other man?
35 Then Philip opened his mouth, and began at the same scripture, and preached unto him Jesus.
36 And as they went on their way, they came unto a certain water: and the eunuch said, See, here is water; what doth hinder me to be baptized?
37 And Philip said, If thou believest with all thine heart, thou mayest. And he answered and said, I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God.
38 And he commanded the chariot to stand still: and they went down both into the water, both Philip and the eunuch; and he baptized him.
39 And when they were come up out of the water, the Spirit of the Lord caught away Philip, that the eunuch saw him no more: and he went on his way rejoicing.
40 But Philip was found at Azotus: and passing through he preached in all the cities, till he came to Caesarea.:bow:
 
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seebs

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Was this verse added by humans to your Bible?

NIV

Acts 8

36As they traveled along the road, they came to some water and the eunuch said, "Look, here is water. Why shouldn't I be baptized?" f
38And he gave orders to stop the chariot. Then both Philip and the eunuch went down into the water and Philip baptized him. 39When they came up out of the water, the Spirit of the Lord suddenly took Philip away, and the eunuch did not see him again, but went on his way rejoicing. 40Philip, however, appeared at Azotus and traveled about, preaching the gospel in all the towns until he reached Caesarea.

f Other sources add a verse 37,
Philip said, If you believe with all your heart, you may. The eunuch answered "I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God."




KJV

Acts8

36 And as they went on their way, they came unto a certain water: and the eunuch said, See, here is water; what doth hinder me to be baptized?
37 And Philip said, If thou believest with all thine heart, thou mayest. And he answered and said, I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God.
38 And he commanded the chariot to stand still: and they went down both into the water, both Philip and the eunuch; and he baptized him.

So, in my NIV, the added text is given - but it is denoted as being found only in some sources, not all.

In my NRSV with full annotations, we find that some sources list *part* of that verse, others all, others none.

Only the KJV provides the verse without any hint of the likely conclusion that it is a man-made addition to the Bible, long after God was done talking.
 
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Jephunneh

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Hosea 13:9--

"9. I will destroy you, O Israel, because you are against me, against your helper." NIV

"9. O Israel, thou hast destroyed thyself; but in me is thine help." KJV
They are totally different. Which makes more sense and tie in Chapter 14:1


Hosea 14:1

"1. Return, O Israel, to the LORD your God. Your sins have been your downfall!" NIV

"1. O Israel, return unto the LORD thy God; for thou hast fallen by thine iniquity." KJV
 
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seebs

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Originally posted by Jephunneh
Hosea 13:9--

"9. I will destroy you, O Israel, because you are against me, against your helper." NIV

"9. O Israel, thou hast destroyed thyself; but in me is thine help." KJV
They are totally different. Which makes more sense and tie in Chapter 14:1

Who cares? Which one did Hosea *actually say*?


Hosea 14:1

"1. Return, O Israel, to the LORD your God. Your sins have been your downfall!" NIV

"1. O Israel, return unto the LORD thy God; for thou hast fallen by thine iniquity." KJV

I think the NIV is probably clearer here - but who cares?

You keep talking about "clarity".

Clarity in a false statement is useless.
 
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seebs

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Originally posted by Jephunneh
Zech. 13:6,7--
"6.If someone asks him, 'What are these wounds on your body? he will answer, 'The wounds I was given at the house of my friends.'"NIV

"6. And one shall say unto him, What are these wounds in thine hands? Then he shall answer, Those with which I was wounded in the house of my friends."KJV

Yes, we know, the KJV translators invented new text from whole cloth and added it. Or wasn't that your point? It's the point you're making.
 
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Jephunneh

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Where the Greek reads one way and the KJV reads the other, rest assured that God will judge you at the Judgment on what you know.

Since you don't know the Greek (and those who know it, alter it to suit themselves), you had better go by the KJV text.


1. The Greek texts are NOT the originals.

2. YOU are not a Greek, and if you were, you couldn't find "the originals."

3. God showed Larkin, Scofield, and Bullinger more from an English text
than he did W & H, A.T. Robertson, and nestle from a Greek text.

4. If you HAD "an accurate translation" of the Greek,
it wouldn't make any kind of reading in English,
due to differences in idiom, sentence construction, and grammar.

5. The "modern" versions, in the "common language,"
are NOT from the originals, or even from the God honored Greek text.

6. If anyone led you to believe any differently,
HE IS AFTER YOUR POCKETBOOK OR YOUR BILL-FOLD.
 
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seebs

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Originally posted by Jephunneh
Where the Greek reads one way and the KJV reads the other, rest assured that God will judge you at the Judgment on what you know.

Since you don't know the Greek (and those who know it, alter it to suit themselves), you had better go by the KJV text.


Ooh, *threats*. That'll help.

Well, if God will judge me on what I know, not necessarily on everything someone else knew, than it hardly matters which Bible I have - I can study any of them, and be judged based on what I knew, not on any specific version. Indeed, if I have never seen a Bible, God will judge me based on what I know.


1. The Greek texts are NOT the originals.

Okay, fine, Aramaic.


2. YOU are not a Greek, and if you were, you couldn't find "the originals."

So? That's why God gives us Bible scholars.


3. God showed Larkin, Scofield, and Bullinger more from an English text
than he did W & H, A.T. Robertson, and nestle from a Greek text.

This strikes me as unsupportable.


4. If you HAD "an accurate translation" of the Greek,
it wouldn't make any kind of reading in English,
due to differences in idiom, sentence construction, and grammar.

In other words, the KJV is *not* a perfect translation. Okay.


5. The "modern" versions, in the "common language,"
are NOT from the originals, or even from the God honored Greek text.

They are from all of the KJV sources, plus additional sources that give better insight into what the text said *before* people started altering it.


6. If anyone led you to believe any differently,
HE IS AFTER YOUR POCKETBOOK OR YOUR BILL-FOLD.

Or after giving me the most information he can about what God said.
 
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The Thadman

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Look at the FIRST post of this thread.

I'm referring to Exodus. Let me reiterate:

Exodus 3:14: Why do the KJV and NIV mistranslate YHWH's words to Moses?

While I'm at it, let me also cite a couple favorite mistranslations of mine (that most bibles commit):

Genesis 2:21: Why do the KJV and NIV mistranslate 'tsela as "rib"?

Matthew 27:46 and Mark 15:34: Why do the KJV and NIV mistranslated the Aramaic verb "shveq"?

Shlomo! (Peace!)
 
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Jephunneh

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Exodus 3
14 And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you.

Genesis 2
21 And the LORD God caused a deep sleep to fall upon Adam, and he slept: and he took one of his ribs, and closed up the flesh instead thereof;

I think that if our God is big enough to speak things into exsistance, He can make sure His word is kept the way He wants it. Would you agree?
 
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The Thadman

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Originally posted by Jephunneh
Exodus 3
14 And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you.

Genesis 2
21 And the LORD God caused a deep sleep to fall upon Adam, and he slept: and he took one of his ribs, and closed up the flesh instead thereof;

I think that if our God is big enough to speak things into exsistance, He can make sure His word is kept the way He wants it. Would you agree?

Yep. But these verses prove that the KJV and NIV aren't what he kept perfectly intact. the major messages are intact in both, but pitting one against the other is futile. They're still both translations, and are both imperfect to such a degree that choosing one over the other is a matter of personal preference.:)

For passages like the ones I cited, they're out there in the original languages, but the path to them is narrow :)

Like "Eel! Eel! la-mo shveqthanee?"

Acts 2:31
Seeing what was ahead, he spoke of the resurrection of the Messiah that he was not abandoned to the grave, nor did his body see decay.

How could he have been forsaken if he wasn't abandoned to the grave?

All Greek MSS mistranslate the Aramaic verb "shveq" as "to forsake" when it means "to allow," "to permit," or "to forgive."

The word is used twice in the Lord's Prayer:

"Shveq our sins as we shveq those who sin against us."

As well as numerous places throughout the Aramaic of the NT to mean "allow" or "let."

(Just a few examples from Mark:)
•"...but he did not let the evil spirits say anything,..." - Mark 1:34
•"And he would not let him,..." - Mark 5:19
•"And you no longer let him..." - Mark 7:12
•"And he allowed no one..." - Mark 11:16

Shlomo! (Peace!)
 
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