Why Not Universal Salvation?

Ed Bana

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Nice opinion how about backing it with God''s Word. When I call some one a heretic I like using God's Word.


2 Peter 2:1 [/font]


But there were false prophets also among the people, even as there shall be false teachers among you, who privily shall bring in damnable heresies, even denying the Lord that bought them, and bring upon themselves swift destruction.​

Strong’s NT:684 apoleia (ap-o'-li-a); from a presumed derivative of NT:622; ruin or loss (physical, spiritual or eternal)

KJV - damnable (-nation), destruction, die, perdition, X perish, pernicious ways, waste.
damnations, destruction , perish etc.

Your whole doctrine centers on damnations, eternal torture, and the pagan word hell.

How about debating facts instead of name calling[/font]

Came out or kicked out for promoting heresy?
 
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elopez

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Yes I reject eternal life; but I do not reject the life of the ages. There are many age which already occurred, and many ages to come. God does not deal with man who is not an eternal being with eternity. Life of the ages is much like eternal life but makes far more since for man; like I said man is not an eternal being; God is eternal and you cannot lump the word eternity with man for this reason. One age leads to another age, to another age, to another age, to another age, to another age, to another age, to another age, to another age, etc.... Yes there are many ages; we are in the Church age right at this moment; there were different ages we can see through out Bible History. Here are a few examples: 1. Unto the age. Mark 3:29. 2. Unto the ages. Luke 1:33. 3. Unto all the ages. Jude 25. 4. Unto the age of the age. Heb. 1:8. 5. Unto all the generations of the age of the ages. Eph. 3:21. 6. Unto the ages of the ages. Rev. 1:6. 7. Unto the day of an age. 2 Pet. 3:18. Only God can answer how many ages there are; we know in part until that which is perfect has come; that which is part shall be done away with. You obviously know nothing about the teachings of Christian Universalism The "eternal life" of Mat. 25:41 is really the "life of the ages", then the "eternal punishment" is likewise an age-lasting correction. The Diaglott says, "Depart from Me, you cursed ones, into that aionian fire... and these shall go away into a cutting-off age lasting." The Bible in Modern English by Farrar Fenton reads, "And these He will dismiss into a LONG CORRECTION." Rotherham's New Testament says, "These shall go away into age-abiding correction." Young's Literal translation renders, "And these shall go away to punishment age-during."
So I was thinking about your position today and I believe I've come to realize that while you reject eternal life and eternal punishment, yet accept God as being eternal and all of this being derived from your interpretation of scripture, you actually do fall victim to the fallacy of special pleading, which I will try to explain.

First, I want to clarify something. You are right, man is not eternal nor is his soul, God is the only eternal being. What I am arguing for is that immortal soul in man, which is different from saying that it is eternal.

You say God is eternal by nature, which we find is accurate according to scripture such as Deuteronomy 33:27 which states, "The eternal God is your refuge, and underneath are the everlasting arms," and again in Romans 16:26, "but now revealed and made known through the prophetic writings by the command of the eternal God." Surely you do not find the word "eternal" to be inconsistent there. Now that word for "eternal" is the Greek "aionios," which describes a duration of endlessness, hence we believe that God's existence is endless. However the same word "aionios" is found in Matthew 25:46, in which you claim that usage of the word does not denote an endless duration but one that does end.

So on what justifiable grounds do you have for claiming that the word "aionios" means endless in duration in one instance but the same word means a finite duration in another instance? It sounds to me like you are picking and choosing what the word means to better accommodate your beliefs, which again is inconsistent and dishonest. In short, that is the fallacy of special pleading that I find you are committing here.

I actually know enough about universalism as it is, it's just that as I said I have never come accorss an universalist that does not accept an eternal reconciliation with God. And the other issue is why on earth would you be using a modern English Bible to interpret these passages? No wonder you have those off base passages rewritten by some no name men.
 
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Hentenza

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Neither is love. Evil is not physical; but neither is God; God is a spirit and evil is very real; it is a power and is is very relevant to the world we live in both in the natural realm and spiritual. Evil is but a tool in the hands of an all powerful God. Nothing happens outside of his soverign and complete control.

Sure, but there is a big difference between preordination and foreknowledge.
 
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elopez

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Even if you wish to translate it "eternal" does the word eternal imply "time without end" or is it referencing a reality that transcends time all together? Does it imply that the person will suffer for time without end?
I am translating the word eternal as "aionios," in which it does imply time without end as it does with God's existence. How can we get temporal punishment from an eternal God? To me it only makes sense if we get an eternal hell from an eternal God. So in regards to punishment, especially everlasting punishment, yes, it does imply that the soul of those persons will suffer without end.
 
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Hentenza

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Where does God identify Himself 'as' wrath? :confused:
Exodus 15:7, Ex. 22:24, Rev 6:16, Job 20:28, Exodus 32:12, Num. 11:33, Job 21:20, etc. Wrath is expectation of the wicked (Prov. 11:23). The Earth will remble at God's wrath (Jer. 10:10). He has a "rod" of His wrath (Lam. 3:1). It abides in all unbelievers (John 3:36) who are objects of wrath (Eph. 2:3). Believers have not been appointed to wrath(1 Thess. 5:9). God swore by His wrath (Heb. 3:11) against unbelief. Christ will thread the winepress of God's wrath (Rev. 19:15).



Of course judgment is His. But mercy rejoices against judgment and is it not His mercy that leads us to repentance?

Sure, however, some do not repent. Read the consequences of unbelief and wickedness in Rom. 1:18-32.



Jesus told us what it was to "be perfect" as our Father in heaven "is perfect". We are "made perfect" IN LOVE.

If we can attain "perfection" in this life then we would not have needed the cross. This verse is misunderstood by many. God is the only perfect being.


Yes, I may be paraphrasing, but I am making reference to very specific passages of scripture. It is very late so, no, I did not take the time to go look up every verse so I could copy/paste it or provide a chapter/verse. More often then not I DO do that, but I simply don't have the time. Sorry. I assumed that you would know to which verses I was referring.

I did, however, as I said above it is impossible for us to be perfect this side of heaven. God makes us perfect in His eyes by His grace through faith in the Son.

Man's demise? I don't see anything but the glory that is to come when all men shall be "conformed into the image of His Son". Should we miss that "old man" that was crucified with Christ and "blame God" for his demise? Adam (the FIRST man) is nothing but A FIGURE of HIM WHO IS TO COME!! (the SECOND man and the LAST Adam)! CHRIST!! :bow:

Yep.

How can that not include the salvation of all men, then?

Because some men will not repent and remain natural men. The bible is full of admonitions to those.

How, if we are by nature the children of wrath?

Judgment in His.

I'm not preaching. :D How is it not?

LOL! I preach in my church every once if a while. ;)

My beliefs are base in the scriptures, whether others think so or not. And I use the same bible study tools that most Christians use - consulting various translation and using concordances to find out what words are being used, how and where, and what they mean. I don't make up definitions to suite myself and neither does any other Christian Universalist that I have ever met.

Sure you do. Case in point in the Greek word aionios. All universalists that I have debated with (and there have been many lol) use the word outside of context. Actually, most verses that universalists posit as proof are isolated from context. I'll wait for you to posit a few so we can address them.


I have something on that very passage that I can post. It's long, though. Should I do that here or on it's own thread?

You can here. It's not offtopic.

BTW- I've probably read it before. ;)

And hanging on to a poor translation to suite one's theology is? ;)

Nah, we have dictionaries and other tools to help with the word meanings. :)
 
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Ed Bana

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I am well aware of the short comings of these words in scripture; which I have already addressed; God’s Word is divine if there is error the error comes from man and his faulty translation, not from the original langage. The Greek word for age or ages when it comes to God being eternal is not the same as the Greek word used for man. I do not have my reference sources with me but I am sure if you look up the “Hebrew” word in Deuteronomy 33:27 it would not be the Greek Word aionios; it would be a Hebrew word.Yes whenever I find the word aion or aionias I do pick and choose; it has been translated at least 12 different way and as I pointed out earlier there are far too many errors in these translations to not pick and choose.


J Preston Eby wrote the following: The seminaries keep puppeting the same old doctrines of damnations generation after generation. Occasionally you will find a Bible scholar willing to agree with the following. A careful study of the Greek word “aionios” (translated as “eternal,” “everlasting,” and “forever and ever” in our English translations) shows that it comes from the Greek noun “aion” which always means “an indeterminate period of time.” It is a most unfortunate thing that the translators of old chose to translate “aionios”from the Latin language rather than the Greek from which the word is derived. God’s punishment will not last forever as is commonly taught, but will only last for the ages and only UNTIL God’s purpose for it is complete.


Eternal, eternity, etc. is not actually found in Scripture though in some aspects applied through inference of propositions. The problem is that the Greek words which were translated to "eternal" actually do not translate properly in English because there is no word in English which translates it properly. In this case, the word is "AIONIOS" and it is a descriptive adjective which just means "of, or in, or belonging to, or coming from, or resmbling, or befitting the AION

AION is a noun meaning, "A period of time, or perpetuity of time, or definitive age, or unbroken age." It simply means an age with unknown measure which can be indefinitive or definitive

So literally the word "AIONIOS" being translated as "Eternal" would more accurately be defined as "agely"; however since "agely" is not a real word, that leaves the English language without a literal translation for the word "AIONIOS".

So anytime you saw Jesus say "Eternal" this and "Eternal" that, he didn't say "perpetually of time" but rather an indeterminate duration that is neither perpetual nor definitive.

Yes the soul needs to be saved; but the spirit returns to God.

Ecclesiastes 12:7
Then shall the dust return to the earth as it was: and the spirit shall return unto God who gave it


1. eternal 2. Course3. World 4. since the world began 5. from the beginning of the world 6. Ever 7. Forever 8. forever and ever 9. for evermore 10.while the world standeth 11. world without end 12. never.
God’s Word shows us the Lake of Fire is Spiritual in nature and there is no mention to it being literal or partially literal in any since of the word.

You may know something about Universalist; but you know nothing about Christian Universalist.


So I was thinking about your position today and I believe I've come to realize that while you reject eternal life and eternal punishment, yet accept God as being eternal and all of this being derived from your interpretation of scripture, you actually do fall victim to the fallacy of special pleading, which I will try to explain.

First, I want to clarify something. You are right, man is not eternal nor is his soul, God is the only eternal being. What I am arguing for is that immortal soul in man, which is different from saying that it is eternal.

You say God is eternal by nature, which we find is accurate according to scripture such as Deuteronomy 33:27 which states, "The eternal God is your refuge, and underneath are the everlasting arms," and again in Romans 16:26, "but now revealed and made known through the prophetic writings by the command of the eternal God." Surely you do not find the word "eternal" to be inconsistent there. Now that word for "eternal" is the Greek "aionios," which describes a duration of endlessness, hence we believe that God's existence is endless. However the same word "aionios" is found in Matthew 25:46, in which you claim that usage of the word does not denote an endless duration but one that does end.

So on what justifiable grounds do you have for claiming that the word "aionios" means endless in duration in one instance but the same word means a finite duration in another instance? It sounds to me like you are picking and choosing what the word means to better accommodate your beliefs, which again is inconsistent and dishonest. In short, that is the fallacy of special pleading that I find you are committing here.

I actually know enough about universalism as it is, it's just that as I said I have never come accorss an universalist that does not accept an eternal reconciliation with God. And the other issue is why on earth would you be using a modern English Bible to interpret these passages? No wonder you have those off base passages rewritten by some no name men.
 
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Ed Bana

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Take note of the word Zion. If you want to understand God's glory.[/font]

It is amazing. One of those hidden spiritual jewels that religion does not see; I hope I can open up this truth to your spiritual eyes

Let me start with Acts 15:14 Acts 15:16 [/font]

After this I will return, and will build again the tabernacle of David, which is fallen down; and I will build again the ruins thereof, and I will set it up
17 That the residue of men might seek after the Lord, and all the Gentiles, upon whom my name is called, saith the Lord, who doeth all these things

Acts 15: 16-17 (NAS) [/font]

'AFTER THESE THINGS I will return,[/font]
AND I WILL REBUILD THE TABERNACLE OF DAVID WHICH HAS FALLEN AND I WILL REBUILD ITS RUINS
AND I WILL RESTORE IT, SO THAT THE REST OF MANKIND MAY SEEK THE LORD, AND ALL THE GENTILES WHO ARE CALLED BY MY NAME,'

Acts 15: 16 (HCSB) After these things I will return and will rebuild David's tent, which has fallen down. I will rebuild its ruins and will set it up again

17 so that those who are left of mankind may seek the Lord—even all the Gentiles who are called by My name, says the Lord who does these things
18 which have been known from long ago.[/font]


]Acts 15 16 (NIRV)
'After this I will return and rebuild David's fallen tent.

I will rebuild what was destroyed. I will make it what it used to be. 17 Then the rest of the people can look to the Lord. This means all the non-Jews who belong to me. The Lord says this. He is the one who does these things.'
So much of the OT is used in NT as for example for us. So often NT writers would use the OT as a foundation point for what they were saying.

1 Corin 10:11 Now all these things happened unto them for examples: and they are written for our admonition, upon whom the ends of the world (age) are come.

Example: NT:5178 a : Strong’s: tupikos (toop-ee-kos'); an adverb related to NT:5179; found only in 1 Cor 10:11: as a warning, by way of example, typologically (i.e. figuratively, as a prophetic type, a typological interpretation of Scripture

]David and his Tabernacle/Tent are a very important typology when it comes to the Temple of God with in us.

The Tabernacle of David; here was a small tent where the Ark of God was brought to Mount Zion

Zion was the natural home of King David who is a type of Christ in Natural Jerusalem. Mt Zion was the head of natural Kingdom; just as Spiritual Mt Zion is the Spiritual high place of Christ in the book of Revelation. David did not need to go to a priest; let alone a high priest to visit the Ark (or the glory of God) it was in a tent or tabernacle on his back porch at Mt Zion. This is a beautiful type which tells us myriads of what God is tying to tell us in the Spirit of the Word.

David was king; He was God’s anointed King; not like Saul who was also anointed by God; but chosen by the people; like many ministries in the church (little c) realm today. David was one of those special people God called, anointed and was one after God’s own heart. David lived in Jerusalem and Mount Zion (Sion); That is where the earthly anointed King lived and all His court; what a wonderful type of the ruler ship of the spiritual Mount Zion.

When David brought the Ark back to Mount Zion he wore an linen ephod, (In other word’s a priestly garment) David also offered burnt offerings to God as the High priest would on the Feast of Tabernacles. There was no high Priest; once a year at the Feast of Atonement at Zion; but David was an example of both King and Priest in that the Ark was not at Shiloh but Zion. No outer court, no holy place, no Levitical order. It is no wonder the Bible is full of pages written by David because of the influence of God’s Ark at Zion.[
 
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angelmom01

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Exodus 15:7, Ex. 22:24, Rev 6:16, Job 20:28, Exodus 32:12, Num. 11:33, Job 21:20, etc. Wrath is expectation of the wicked (Prov. 11:23). The Earth will remble at God's wrath (Jer. 10:10). He has a "rod" of His wrath (Lam. 3:1). It abides in all unbelievers (John 3:36) who are objects of wrath (Eph. 2:3). Believers have not been appointed to wrath(1 Thess. 5:9). God swore by His wrath (Heb. 3:11) against unbelief. Christ will thread the winepress of God's wrath (Rev. 19:15).
Once again, I have not denied the wrath of God or that it is poured out upon the wicked, that God will "execute judgment and justice". But none of those passages answer the question that I asked. Where, in the scriptures, is God identified "AS" wrath? The way that He is identified "AS" love?

Sure, however, some do not repent. Read the consequences of unbelief and wickedness in Rom. 1:18-32.
See above. Just because God pours out His wrath in judgment upon the wicked does not mean that they are punished "endlessly" or that His judgments are "punitively" (rather than remedial) in nature. Is that how you would punish your children?

If we can attain "perfection" in this life then we would not have needed the cross. This verse is misunderstood by many. God is the only perfect being.
No one said anything about attaining perfection in this life, as you seem to think that I am reasoning it. Nonetheless, we are told to "be perfect". Are we not? And even Paul speaks of those who "be prefect". And we are told that we are "made perfect" IN LOVE. As that is the fulfillment of the law, isn't it?

I did, however, as I said above it is impossible for us to be perfect this side of heaven. God makes us perfect in His eyes by His grace through faith in the Son.
Why would you just assume that I was speaking about "perfection" in that way just because I mentioned the verse, when I said nothing of the sort? I can't know what Jesus means by "be ye perfect" if I don't believe in your definition of eternal torment?

Glad we agree of something. :thumbsup:

So if we are "his workmanship" (even said to be clay in the Potters hand, by way of analogy) what makes you think that God cannot conform all men into the image of His Son when not a single one of us can do this 'for ourselves', for it requires GOD to write His laws on our hearts and even send us HIS spirit?

Because some men will not repent and remain natural men. The bible is full of admonitions to those.
Sure! and those who sow to the flesh reap to the flesh. How does that prove that God is going to punish them "forever and ever" because of it?

The veil that stands between that natural man and God is "the flesh" is it not? So what happens when "the flesh" is taken out of the way? Or do you not think God is able (or willing) to take it out of the way?

Judgment in His.
Yes it is and He has told us that "true judgment" is to show mercy and compassion. And what did Jesus say about who would love their master the most? Was it not "to whom he forgave most? (Luke 7:40-43)

Remember that it is was the servant who would not forgive (as he has been forgiven) who was called the "wicked servant" and who "turned over to the tormentors" until he paid all that he owed. What did he owe?

LOL! I preach in my church every once if a while. ;)
Ok. :)

Sure you do. Case in point in the Greek word aionios. All universalists that I have debated with (and there have been many lol) use the word outside of context. Actually, most verses that universalists posit as proof are isolated from context. I'll wait for you to posit a few so we can address them.
That's not what you said earlier. You said we change the meaning of the word altogether, redefining it to suite our own theology. When the truth is that any Greek concordance will tell you that aion mean "an age" and aionios is it's adjective. Would you ever go around claiming that an "annual meaning" of the booster club is "never ever going to come to end" just because the "end date" is not known?

You can here. It's not offtopic.
Yeah, but not sure I want to continue to participate in this thread. I thought it was intended to be a more civil discussion to explore the topic. Turns out maybe that's not the intention. So we'll see.

BTW- I've probably read it before. ;)
I'd be extremely surprised.

Nah, we have dictionaries and other tools to help with the word meanings. :)
Yeah, most likely the same ones we use. ;)
 
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Ed Bana

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What they are refuse to address is the wrath of God is the wrath of the lamb. This does not fit their doctines of eternal torment.

Once again, I have not denied the wrath of God or that it is poured out upon the wicked, that God will "execute judgment and justice". But none of those passages answer the question that I asked. Where, in the scriptures, is God identified "AS" wrath? The way that He is identified "AS" love?
 
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Hentenza

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Then you do not KNOW God and you do not know the Bible.

LOL!!! Tell me, do you have a verse that says that God will save everyone. Even the wicked ones that do not have faith?
 
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Hentenza

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What they are refuse to address is the wrath of God is the wrath of the lamb. This does not fit their doctines of eternal torment.

Yes, the same lamb that comes at the end of times with a sword to judge all the nations. The same lamb that came not to send peace on Earth, but a sword.
 
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elopez

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I am well aware of the short comings of these words in scripture; which I have already addressed; God’s Word is divine if there is error the error comes from man and his faulty translation, not from the original langage. The Greek word for age or ages when it comes to God being eternal is not the same as the Greek word used for man. I do not have my reference sources with me but I am sure if you look up the “Hebrew” word in Deuteronomy 33:27 it would not be the Greek Word aionios; it would be a Hebrew word.Yes whenever I find the word aion or aionias I do pick and choose; it has been translated at least 12 different way and as I pointed out earlier there are far too many errors in these translations to not pick and choose.


J Preston Eby wrote the following: The seminaries keep puppeting the same old doctrines of damnations generation after generation. Occasionally you will find a Bible scholar willing to agree with the following. A careful study of the Greek word “aionios” (translated as “eternal,” “everlasting,” and “forever and ever” in our English translations) shows that it comes from the Greek noun “aion” which always means “an indeterminate period of time.” It is a most unfortunate thing that the translators of old chose to translate “aionios”from the Latin language rather than the Greek from which the word is derived. God’s punishment will not last forever as is commonly taught, but will only last for the ages and only UNTIL God’s purpose for it is complete.


Eternal, eternity, etc. is not actually found in Scripture though in some aspects applied through inference of propositions. The problem is that the Greek words which were translated to "eternal" actually do not translate properly in English because there is no word in English which translates it properly. In this case, the word is "AIONIOS" and it is a descriptive adjective which just means "of, or in, or belonging to, or coming from, or resmbling, or befitting the AION

AION is a noun meaning, "A period of time, or perpetuity of time, or definitive age, or unbroken age." It simply means an age with unknown measure which can be indefinitive or definitive

So literally the word "AIONIOS" being translated as "Eternal" would more accurately be defined as "agely"; however since "agely" is not a real word, that leaves the English language without a literal translation for the word "AIONIOS".

So anytime you saw Jesus say "Eternal" this and "Eternal" that, he didn't say "perpetually of time" but rather an indeterminate duration that is neither perpetual nor definitive.

Yes the soul needs to be saved; but the spirit returns to God.

Ecclesiastes 12:7
Then shall the dust return to the earth as it was: and the spirit shall return unto God who gave it


1. eternal 2. Course3. World 4. since the world began 5. from the beginning of the world 6. Ever 7. Forever 8. forever and ever 9. for evermore 10.while the world standeth 11. world without end 12. never.
God’s Word shows us the Lake of Fire is Spiritual in nature and there is no mention to it being literal or partially literal in any since of the word.

You may know something about Universalist; but you know nothing about Christian Universalist.
So you're claiming that your interpretation of scripture derives from God and is without error, yet the Bible you use to support your beliefs is a Bible written in modern English that comes from man? I'm sorry but that just seems faulty to me and doesn't make much sense. Also, I posted the other verse that speaks of God's eternality which is found in Romans 16, which would be the same word "aionios" used in Matthew 25:46. Why didn't you address that, as my argument of special pleading still applies there? It's the same word dude, and if we are picking and choosing what the word means in which verses, there is no reason why we cannot say that "aionios" in Romans 16 in relation to the eternality of God doesn't mean infinite in duration but finite, and so thus God's existence would come to an end just like the age you speak of. Again, picking and choosing what the word means is pretty faulty reasoning, and then we can just make stuff up as we go.

It's actually interesting, for "aion" in its primary usage means unbroken or indefinite duration, and while it does signify an age or era, the word doesn't have so much to do with that of the actual length of a period but of a period marked by spiritual and moral characteristics. This is clearly illustrated in John 17:3 with the phrase "life eternal." Eternal life stresses the quality of that life while everlasting the length of that life. I just believe it to be more consistent in saying this phrase is meant in the sense of indefinite duration, and thus the phrase "eis ton aiona" does not mean "unto the age" but "for ever." We will spend a life everlasting with God which actually sounds very pleasant to me.

If "agely" is not a word, then "aionios" translated as "eternal" cannot be properly defined as such. That should be pretty obvious, shouldn't it? And I admitted I am unfamiliar with your views, but the other universalists I've talked to claimed to be just as Christian as you, so really I don't see a difference in saying Christian universalist rather than universalist.
 
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Ed Bana

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Do you read my post??? Here is a couple. And there is plenty more...

1 Corin 15: 21: For since by man came death, by man came also the resurrection of the dead. 22: For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. 23: But every man in his own order:

Romans 5:18-20 (Weymouth’s) It follows then just as the result of a single transgression is a condemnation which to the whole race, so also is the result of a single degree of righteousness is a life giving acquittal which extends to the whole race. (19) for as thought the disobedience of one individual the mass of mankind were constituted as sinners, so also though the obedience of one, the mass of mankind will be constituted righteous. Now law was brought in later on so that the transgression might increase, but sin increased, grace is overflowed

Acts 15:16-17 (Wycliffe) 16 After this I shall turn again, and build the tabernacle of David, that fell down; and I shall build again the cast down things of it, and I shall raise it; that other men seek the Lord [that others of men seek the Lord], and all folks on whom my name is called to help; the Lord doing this thing, saith.


Every knee shall bow, and tongue shall confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father

All Flesh shall see the salvation of God.

1 Cor 15:24 Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.
25 For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet.
26 The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death.
27 For he hath put all things under his feet. But when he saith, all things are put under him, it is manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him. 28 And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all.

Amp. Everything to everyone



LOL!!! Tell me, do you have a verse that says that God will save everyone. Even the wicked ones that do not have faith?
 
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angelmom01

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LOL!!! Tell me, do you have a verse that says that God will save everyone. Even the wicked ones that do not have faith?
There are, but as soon as they were posted you would just say that are being taken out of context or that they only meant to be applied to believers, wouldn't you?

You know at least those of us who disagree with you can acknowledge that the you actually do "support" your beliefs with the scriptures, even if we disagree with your interpretation. It's a shame that you cannot at least go that far with us.
 
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Ed Bana

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I am not going to argue aion, aionias or olan with you. No matter what I say you are convinced you are right; so I will agree to disagree with you. This point was made at the very beginning of this thread
I would be waisting your time and you would be waisting mine.


So you're claiming that your interpretation of scripture derives from God and is without error, yet the Bible you use to support your beliefs is a Bible written in modern English that comes from man? I'm sorry but that just seems faulty to me and doesn't make much sense. Also, I posted the other verse that speaks of God's eternality which is found in Romans 16, which would be the same word "aionios" used in Matthew 25:46. Why didn't you address that, as my argument of special pleading still applies there? It's the same word dude, and if we are picking and choosing what the word means in which verses, there is no reason why we cannot say that "aionios" in Romans 16 in relation to the eternality of God doesn't mean infinite in duration but finite, and so thus God's existence would come to an end just like the age you speak of. Again, picking and choosing what the word means is pretty faulty reasoning, and then we can just make stuff up as we go.

It's actually interesting, for "aion" in its primary usage means unbroken or indefinite duration, and while it does signify an age or era, the word doesn't have so much to do with that of the actual length of a period but of a period marked by spiritual and moral characteristics. This is clearly illustrated in John 17:3 with the phrase "life eternal." Eternal life stresses the quality of that life while everlasting the length of that life. I just believe it to be more consistent in saying this phrase is meant in the sense of indefinite duration, and thus the phrase "eis ton aiona" does not mean "unto the age" but "for ever." We will spend a life everlasting with God which actually sounds very pleasant to me.

If "agely" is not a word, then "aionios" translated as "eternal" cannot be properly defined as such. That should be pretty obvious, shouldn't it? And I admitted I am unfamiliar with your views, but the other universalists I've talked to claimed to be just as Christian as you, so really I don't see a difference in saying Christian universalist rather than universalist.
 
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