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Hi. First some clarification - this is a thread for Dispensationalists. I don't need anyone disagreeing here. I just need some information on how to interpret this passage as a Dispensationalist.

1Pe 2:9 But you are A CHOSEN RACE, A royal PRIESTHOOD, A HOLY NATION, A PEOPLE FOR {God's} OWN POSSESSION, so that you may proclaim the excellencies of Him who has called you out of darkness into His marvelous light;
1Pe 2:10 for you once were NOT A PEOPLE, but now you are THE PEOPLE OF GOD; you had NOT RECEIVED MERCY, but now you have RECEIVED MERCY.

I have read some dispensational interpretations of this passage and they just aren't cutting it for me. When I read "A CHOSEN RACE, A royal PRIESTHOOD, A HOLY NATION, A PEOPLE FOR {God's} OWN POSSESSION" as a quote from Exodus to Israel, and it is here applied to Christians, I can't help but see an advocation of Covenant Theology by Peter. Dispensationalism draws distinctions between the Church and Israel, namely, that Israel is a nation and a race with specific promises, apart from those given to the Church. However, we have those same attributes (race, nation, priesthood) applied to the church here.

How is this reconciled? By the way I am a dispy I am just confused.
 

zeke37

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I'm not a pr tribber, but I do believe in dispensations...

it is just that the church and Israel are not seperated...

gentiles (not chosen race/not priesthood/not holy) are grafted in and become just that...by adoption...


they are not seperated.



ps. IMO most of Christianity is descended from ancient Israel (northern tribes-scattered under the Assyrian), which would easily reconsile your thought
 
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LamorakDesGalis

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Hi. First some clarification - this is a thread for Dispensationalists. I don't need anyone disagreeing here. I just need some information on how to interpret this passage as a Dispensationalist.

1Pe 2:9 But you are A CHOSEN RACE, A royal PRIESTHOOD, A HOLY NATION, A PEOPLE FOR {God's} OWN POSSESSION, so that you may proclaim the excellencies of Him who has called you out of darkness into His marvelous light;
1Pe 2:10 for you once were NOT A PEOPLE, but now you are THE PEOPLE OF GOD; you had NOT RECEIVED MERCY, but now you have RECEIVED MERCY.

I have read some dispensational interpretations of this passage and they just aren't cutting it for me. When I read "A CHOSEN RACE, A royal PRIESTHOOD, A HOLY NATION, A PEOPLE FOR {God's} OWN POSSESSION" as a quote from Exodus to Israel, and it is here applied to Christians, I can't help but see an advocation of Covenant Theology by Peter. Dispensationalism draws distinctions between the Church and Israel, namely, that Israel is a nation and a race with specific promises, apart from those given to the Church. However, we have those same attributes (race, nation, priesthood) applied to the church here.

How is this reconciled? By the way I am a dispy I am just confused.

Royal PRIESTHOOD - All Christians are priests, but was the nation of Israel a nation of priests? Did everyone have the priesthood in the nation of Israel?

In 1 Peter 2:9, Peter quoted from Exodus 19:5-6. The nation of Israel never became a nation of priests because of their golden calf rebellion. The law established that just the Levites held the priesthood and specific Aaronic descendants held the high priesthood. Its a major difference between the church and Israel.

CHOSEN RACE and A HOLY NATION - the term race also means people or generation. The key word is chosen (see Col 3:12 and Eph 1:4). Israel as God's chosen nation related to God through the Mosaic covenant promises. The Church as individuals chosen by God relate to God through the New Covenant promises. Israel had a temple where God dwelt; in the Church, members are indwelt by the Holy Spirit.

While there are contrasts between Israel and the Church, but there are also some continuities. Dispensationalists affirm both continuity and discontinuity in Scripture.

Israel and the Church are not mutually exclusive. Israel consists of believing Jews and unbelieving Jews. Peter was a believing Jew while Caiaphas was an unbelieving Jew; both were member of Israel. The church consists of believing Jews and believing Gentiles. Peter was a believing Jew and Cornelius was a believing Gentile; both are members of the church. So there is some overlap between Israel and the church - the believing Jews.

There is a reason why Paul circumcised Timothy but adamantly refused to circumcise Titus. Both were believers - one was ethnically Jewish, the other ethnically Gentile. Gentiles could never be a member of Israel unless they became a Jew - were circumcised, submitted to the law, etc. However Gentiles become members of the church through belief.

In 1 Peter 2:10, Peter quoted from Hosea 1:6 or 1:9 or 2:23. Paul also quoted from Hosea in Rom 9:25-26. In Hosea the words applied to Israel. In Romans Paul applied the words to the Gentiles. In 1 Peter 2:10, Peter applied the words to both Jews and Gentiles.


LDG
 
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JDS

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Hi. First some clarification - this is a thread for Dispensationalists. I don't need anyone disagreeing here. I just need some information on how to interpret this passage as a Dispensationalist.

1Pe 2:9 But you are A CHOSEN RACE, A royal PRIESTHOOD, A HOLY NATION, A PEOPLE FOR {God's} OWN POSSESSION, so that you may proclaim the excellencies of Him who has called you out of darkness into His marvelous light;
1Pe 2:10 for you once were NOT A PEOPLE, but now you are THE PEOPLE OF GOD; you had NOT RECEIVED MERCY, but now you have RECEIVED MERCY.

I have read some dispensational interpretations of this passage and they just aren't cutting it for me. When I read "A CHOSEN RACE, A royal PRIESTHOOD, A HOLY NATION, A PEOPLE FOR {God's} OWN POSSESSION" as a quote from Exodus to Israel, and it is here applied to Christians, I can't help but see an advocation of Covenant Theology by Peter. Dispensationalism draws distinctions between the Church and Israel, namely, that Israel is a nation and a race with specific promises, apart from those given to the Church. However, we have those same attributes (race, nation, priesthood) applied to the church here.

How is this reconciled? By the way I am a dispy I am just confused.

This is an excellent question. Every bible student should be concerned with the answer because it goes to the heart of rightly dividing the scriptures and understanding God's program for the ages. It would be impossible to thoroughly give an answer to this and consider all the aspects one should know so I am just going to express a few thoughts in hopes it will help advance your understanding.

First of all, the specifics in Peter's epistles were directed to someone who had previously been under a curse. That is not to say the truths he deals with is not helpful to anyone who reads it. The status of those to whom he is writing has changed in the present from what it had been in the times past. Those people must be determined by the text and when one follows the references, it is easily seen to be the 10 northern tribes of Israel which was the nation called Ephraim, or Israel, as opposed to the 2 southern tribes which were called Judah. Certainly the distiction is made in the text. God had not had mercy on them since BC 722 when they were dispersed among the heathen (gentiles) by Sennacherib, the Assyrian.

11 Dearly beloved, I beseech you as strangers and pilgrims, abstain from fleshly lusts, which war against the soul;
12 Having your conversation honest among the Gentiles: that, whereas they speak against you as evildoers, they may by your good works, which they shall behold, glorify God in the day of visitation.

One can see from the texts they were not gentiles but they were strangers. They were strangers in the sense they had been "cut off" from the covenants of Israel because of their refusal to receive David, God's chosen king, and they were outside of their promised land, wandering in the world.

One must remember that Peter wrote his epistles while Judah and the covenant people of God still had a national identity. A national identity is a requirement for the covenants of God to be realized and repentance was being preached to these people and warnings of impending judgment were expressed in the epistles of Hebrews, 1 and 2 Peter, and James and Jude, all written before the assault by the Roman Titus which essential erased their national status and drove them out of the land in AD 70.

The 4 things mentioned about these stangers and pilgrims are very important to consider.

1 They are a chosen "generation".
2 A royal Priesthood
3 A holy nation
4 A peculiar people


The changed status -

In time past - Not a people and not obtained mercy
Now - They are the people of God - they have obtained mercy

A generation is 70 years and since our Lord used the term so often in his discourses, we can determine that his generation is the one to whom he had given special privileges and responsibilities.

(An example here for edification)

Mt 12:41 The men of Nineveh shall rise in judgment with this generation, and shall condemn it: because they repented at the preaching of Jonas; and, behold, a greater than Jonas [is] here.

Jesus Christ was cut off out of the land of the living before his generation was finished, but he sent his Spirit to complete his work through his apostles and at the end of his generation, in AD 70, Israel had failed to repent and to be born again and God buried them in the nations of the world. They were separated from God, both physically (nationally) and spiritually, which is the definition for death.

This chosen generation was a priesthood because everyone of them who was saved by the indwelling Spirit had access to the Father through the name of the Son of God, Jesus Christ. We are still not speaking ofthe gentiles and Israel was first to receive the Father. They no longer had to have a company of priests. The gentiles would receive the blessings of this people, but after they had refused the saviour, Jesus Christ and only a remnant of Israel were saved.

That generation was a holy nation and a peculiar people because they were the SONS of God, having been born of the Spirit, who was sent to them on Pentecost in Acts 2. This was something brand new in the world that men could become the sons of God by the new birth. This required the New Testament which is the New Covenant that was promised in the OT. It becomes of force after the death of the testator and the will is read by Israel to whom the promises were made.

Heb 9:16 For where a testament is, there must also of necessity be the death of the testator.
Heb 9:17 For a testament is of force after men are dead: otherwise it is of no strength at all while the testator liveth.

Their is an inheritance for them, and there still is. But the generation who had the responsibilty of receiving it failed and God drove out the nation and gave the spiritual gifts of the covenant to the gentiles and now we are still gentiles in the flesh but we are positionally the same as Israel, Sons of God by being born of the Spirit of God in the name of Jesus Christ.

Consider these words in light of what I have said. I offer them without further comment:

Ro 11:5 Even so then at this present time also there is a remnant according to the election of grace. 6 And if by grace, then is it no more of works: otherwise grace is no more grace. But if it be of works, then is it no more grace: otherwise work is no more work. 7 What then? Israel hath not obtained that which he seeketh for; but the election hath obtained it, and the rest were blinded 8 (According as it is written, God hath given them the spirit of slumber, eyes that they should not see, and ears that they should not hear;) unto this day. 9 And David saith, Let their table be made a snare, and a trap, and a stumblingblock, and a recompence unto them: 10 Let their eyes be darkened, that they may not see, and bow down their back alway. 11 I say then, Have they stumbled that they should fall? God forbid: but rather through their fall salvation is come unto the Gentiles, for to provoke them to jealousy. 12 Now if the fall of them be the riches of the world, and the diminishing of them the riches of the Gentiles; how much more their fulness? 13 For I speak to you Gentiles, inasmuch as I am the apostle of the Gentiles, I magnify mine office: 14 If by any means I may provoke to emulation them which are my flesh, and might save some of them. 15 For if the casting away of them be the reconciling of the world, what shall the receiving of them be, but life from the dead? 16 For if the firstfruit be holy, the lump is also holy: and if the root be holy, so are the branches. 17 And if some of the branches be broken off, and thou, being a wild olive tree, wert graffed in among them, and with them partakest of the root and fatness of the olive tree; 18 Boast not against the branches. But if thou boast, thou bearest not the root, but the root thee. 19 Thou wilt say then, The branches were broken off, that I might be graffed in. 20 Well; because of unbelief they were broken off, and thou standest by faith. Be not highminded, but fear: 21 For if God spared not the natural branches, take heed lest he also spare not thee. 22 Behold therefore the goodness and severity of God: on them which fell, severity; but toward thee, goodness, if thou continue in his goodness: otherwise thou also shalt be cut off. 23 And they also, if they abide not still in unbelief, shall be graffed in: for God is able to graff them in again. 24 For if thou wert cut out of the olive tree which is wild by nature, and wert graffed contrary to nature into a good olive tree: how much more shall these, which be the natural branches, be graffed into their own olive tree? 25 For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in. 26 And so all Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob: 27 For this is my covenant unto them, when I shall take away their sins. 28 As concerning the gospel, they are enemies for your sakes: but as touching the election, they are beloved for the fathers’ sakes. 29 For the gifts and calling of God are without repentance. 30 For as ye in times past have not believed God, yet have now obtained mercy through their unbelief: 31 Even so have these also now not believed, that through your mercy they also may obtain mercy. 32 For God hath concluded them all in unbelief, that he might have mercy upon all.
 
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Dispy

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Hi. First some clarification - this is a thread for Dispensationalists. I don't need anyone disagreeing here. I just need some information on how to interpret this passage as a Dispensationalist.

1Pe 2:9 But you are A CHOSEN RACE, A royal PRIESTHOOD, A HOLY NATION, A PEOPLE FOR {God's} OWN POSSESSION, so that you may proclaim the excellencies of Him who has called you out of darkness into His marvelous light;
1Pe 2:10 for you once were NOT A PEOPLE, but now you are THE PEOPLE OF GOD; you had NOT RECEIVED MERCY, but now you have RECEIVED MERCY.

I have read some dispensational interpretations of this passage and they just aren't cutting it for me. When I read "A CHOSEN RACE, A royal PRIESTHOOD, A HOLY NATION, A PEOPLE FOR {God's} OWN POSSESSION" as a quote from Exodus to Israel, and it is here applied to Christians, I can't help but see an advocation of Covenant Theology by Peter. Dispensationalism draws distinctions between the Church and Israel, namely, that Israel is a nation and a race with specific promises, apart from those given to the Church. However, we have those same attributes (race, nation, priesthood) applied to the church here.

How is this reconciled? By the way I am a dispy I am just confused.

I am what is considered a non-denominationals the studies the scriptures from a mid-Acts dispensational view point. I will attempt to give you my view on this contraversial subject.

First of all consider 1 Peter 1:1 to determine to what people was Peter writeing. It was "...to the strangers scattered..." These are the scattered Jews of the persecution. The same ones that James and Cephas (Peter) agree with Paul and Baranbas in Gal. 2:9 that they would stay with. How were they saved? Under the praeaching of "the gospel of the kingdom," when the Law was in effect. Who preached this gospel? John the Baptist, Jesus, and the 12 disciples. So what were those saved under that gospel looking for? The kingdom out of heaven that was to be established upon the earth. That is what Jesus instructed His disciples to pray for in Matt. 6:10.

When Jesus establishes His kingdom upon the earth, God will again deal with Israel as His special/favorite people. The Law will be written upon their hearts (Isa. 31:33). They will then be that "kingdom of priests" God promised back in Exod. 19:6.

We know from the promises to Abram/Abraham, and the children of Israel was said in 1 Pet. 2:9

In Pet. 2:10 Peter is going back to Hosea 1 and 2. Chapter 2 tells of Israel being an adulterous wife, and how she (Israel) will be restored.

Keep in mind that Peter is not writeing to members of the Church, the Body of Christ, who have a heavenly home to look forward to, but to believing Israelites that were promised an earthly kingdom to look forward to. Further, there are many thing pertaing to Christian living in that letter that are also valid for us members of the Body of Christ to follow.

A true Berean will take into consideration as to who the book is written and its purpose. Also, keep in mind that all scripture is FOR our learning (Rom. 15:4), but is not all TO US. God gave His instructions for the children of Israel through the Civil, Moral, and Ceremonial Laws of Moses, and God gave His instructions in righteousness to members of the Body of Christ through the Pauline Epistles.

Hope this is helpful.
 
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gideon army

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I have read some dispensational interpretations of this passage and they just aren't cutting it for me. When I read "A CHOSEN RACE, A royal PRIESTHOOD, A HOLY NATION, A PEOPLE FOR {God's} OWN POSSESSION" as a quote from Exodus to Israel, and it is here applied to Christians, I can't help but see an advocation of Covenant Theology by Peter. Dispensationalism draws distinctions between the Church and Israel, namely, that Israel is a nation and a race with specific promises, apart from those given to the Church. However, we have those same attributes (race, nation, priesthood) applied to the church here.

How is this reconciled? By the way I am a dispy I am just confused.

Hi there dearly Beloved of our Lord's Christ Jesus -Jesusfreak5000,

Believe the answer you sought must be Scriptural? Please get a copy of the NKJV & you'll be able to read in the Introductory passage that it's addressed to the Jews ;)
 
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Charis kai Dunamis

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Hi there dearly Beloved of our Lord's Christ Jesus -Jesusfreak5000,

Believe the answer you sought must be Scriptural? Please get a copy of the NKJV & you'll be able to read in the Introductory passage that it's addressed to the Jews ;)

Hello! I've done a pretty big study on the introduction and I am right there with you on the recipients of the letter... but I suppose it really confuses me that 99% of commentators and scholars seem to think the evidence is undeniable that it was written to a primarily Gentile audience... why is this?
 
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vinsight4u

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Deut.
32:20: And he said, I will hide my face from them, I will see what their end shall be: for they are a very froward generation, children in whom is no faith.
21: They have moved me to jealousy with that which is not God; they have provoked me to anger with their vanities: and I will move them to jealousy with those which are not a people; I will provoke them to anger with a foolish nation.

Romans
10:19: But I say, Did not Israel know? First Moses saith, I will provoke you to jealousy by them that are no people, and by a foolish nation I will anger you.
///Deuteronomy 32:21
Romans
ch 11
11: I say then, Have they stumbled that they should fall? God forbid: but rather through their fall salvation is come unto the Gentiles, for to provoke them to jealousy.
 
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gideon army

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Hello! I've done a pretty big study on the introduction and I am right there with you on the recipients of the letter... but I suppose it really confuses me that 99% of commentators and scholars seem to think the evidence is undeniable that it was written to a primarily Gentile audience... why is this?

Hi there Jesusfreak,

Do apologized for my belated respond as I've missed your question earlier, Apostle Peter was sent to administer to the Jews & if you read the commentaries on the Epistle of Peter, you'll note that He's writing to the Jews who are bent on the Law of Moses & not recieving Christ.

Then again there's many Gentiles & Christians who are like the Jews who are relying on their SELF Efforts (Self Righteousness) for Self Justification instead of subjecting themselves to the GIFT of Righteousness in & thru Christ Jesus ( Anti Christ 666 in the Book of Revelations is nothing more than referring to those who are depending on themselves. 6 is the Number of Men as GOD made men on the 6th day, 6 is the Number of Self Righteousness as it's Men efforts/ 6 is men Edifying themselves thru their own trust in themselves via Self Efforts hence most Gentiles & Predomiant Christian communities are Anti Christ ;))
 
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Ghost air

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Hello! I've done a pretty big study on the introduction and I am right there with you on the recipients of the letter... but I suppose it really confuses me that 99% of commentators and scholars seem to think the evidence is undeniable that it was written to a primarily Gentile audience... why is this?

I don't see why commentators would believe this, knowing that Peter's ministry was to the Circumcision, and Paul's was to the Gentiles.

Perhaps it's because many of the commentators that you read are 'reformed' and therefore they are most likely 'amillennial' in their thinking...? Many of these folks don't even think that the nation of Israel has a place in the end times... but of course they do...

Number one stumblingblock imo... is that people don't make a distinction between the Israel of God, and the church of God...

I think that it's interesting that after Paul's letters to the church of God, the bible again switches to a more 'Jewish' context... Hebrews, James, Peter, John, etc etc... and that makes sense, because once the fulness of the GENTILES come in... then God will deal with the nation of Israel.. and in the end, they will receive Him.
 
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JDS

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I think that it's interesting that after Paul's letters to the church of God, the bible again switches to a more 'Jewish' context... Hebrews, James, Peter, John, etc etc... and that makes sense, because once the fulness of the GENTILES come in... then God will deal with the nation of Israel.. and in the end, they will receive Him.

Very interesting and informed thoughts and observations, GA. I think I will study and meditate on this some.
 
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Biblewriter

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You are forgetting whom this was addressed to.

Read 1 Peter 1:1:
"Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to the strangers scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia, 2Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied."

This entire book was expressly written to the Jewish Christians who had been driven away from their homeland and were now strangers in the various places mentioned.

The passage in question treats of Hosea 1:6-10 "And she conceived again, and bare a daughter. And God said unto him, Call her name Loruhamah: for I will no more have mercy upon the house of Israel; but I will utterly take them away. But I will have mercy upon the house of Judah, and will save them by the LORD their God, and will not save them by bow, nor by sword, nor by battle, by horses, nor by horsemen.
"Now when she had weaned Loruhamah, she conceived, and bare a son. 9Then said God, Call his name Loammi: for ye are not my people, and I will not be your God.
Yet the number of the children of Israel shall be as the sand of the sea, which cannot be measured nor numbered; and it shall come to pass, that in the place where it was said unto them, Ye are not my people, there it shall be said unto them, Ye are the sons of the living God."


Hi. First some clarification - this is a thread for Dispensationalists. I don't need anyone disagreeing here. I just need some information on how to interpret this passage as a Dispensationalist.

1Pe 2:9 But you are A CHOSEN RACE, A royal PRIESTHOOD, A HOLY NATION, A PEOPLE FOR {God's} OWN POSSESSION, so that you may proclaim the excellencies of Him who has called you out of darkness into His marvelous light;
1Pe 2:10 for you once were NOT A PEOPLE, but now you are THE PEOPLE OF GOD; you had NOT RECEIVED MERCY, but now you have RECEIVED MERCY.

I have read some dispensational interpretations of this passage and they just aren't cutting it for me. When I read "A CHOSEN RACE, A royal PRIESTHOOD, A HOLY NATION, A PEOPLE FOR {God's} OWN POSSESSION" as a quote from Exodus to Israel, and it is here applied to Christians, I can't help but see an advocation of Covenant Theology by Peter. Dispensationalism draws distinctions between the Church and Israel, namely, that Israel is a nation and a race with specific promises, apart from those given to the Church. However, we have those same attributes (race, nation, priesthood) applied to the church here.

How is this reconciled? By the way I am a dispy I am just confused.
 
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A Brother In Christ

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Hi. First some clarification - this is a thread for Dispensationalists.


1Pe 2:9 But you are A CHOSEN RACE, A royal PRIESTHOOD, A HOLY NATION, A PEOPLE FOR {God's} OWN POSSESSION, so that you may proclaim the excellencies of Him who has called you out of darkness into His marvelous light; John 1:4 .. light Royal Priesthood... Levi's priest.. Judah Kings in Law... Eph 2:11-15 connects these verses Gal 3:28 Matt 28:19 .. Nation is gentile in a general sense

1Pe 2:10 for you once were NOT A PEOPLE, but now you are THE PEOPLE OF GOD; you had NOT RECEIVED MERCY, but now you have RECEIVED MERCY.eph 2:11-15
 
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Hello! I've done a pretty big study on the introduction and I am right there with you on the recipients of the letter... but I suppose it really confuses me that 99% of commentators and scholars seem to think the evidence is undeniable that it was written to a primarily Gentile audience... why is this?

Because they enjoy reading mail addressed to Israel, and claim her promises. However, there are things written to those Jews that can be applied to all believers of every dispensation.
 
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When I read "A CHOSEN RACE, A royal PRIESTHOOD, A HOLY NATION, A PEOPLE FOR {God's} OWN POSSESSION" as a quote from Exodus to Israel, and it is here applied to Christians, I can't help but see an advocation of Covenant Theology by Peter. Dispensationalism draws distinctions between the Church and Israel, namely, that Israel is a nation and a race with specific promises, apart from those given to the Church. However, we have those same attributes (race, nation, priesthood) applied to the church here.How is this reconciled?
We are Chosen by God, we are called to the Royal Priesthood & we are to be Holy before God. I take the instruction that Moses gives to the Priesthood serious as much as it applys to me today. A Priest serves God and interceeds between God and others.
 
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However, we have those same attributes (race, nation, priesthood) applied to the church here.
The key here is "called". For "many are called but few are choosen" Matthew 22:14. Not everyone answers the call to the priesthood. That does not mean they are not saved, it just means they do not represent God. He wants a people who are holy, sanctifed and set apart to serve Him.
 
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