Why the Coming Russian Invasion of Israel is Pre-Tribulational

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alexgb00

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hiscosmicgoldfish, if you don't mind me saying what I think, everyone's opinion on the end-times issues is only an opinion. I don't spend hardly any time here on the "Eschatology" forum, but when I do come in, I'm bothered by people's detailed, point-by-point interpretations of prophecies. The reason it annoys me is that there are as many interpretations as there are people, but only one of them can be right, at maximum. That's why I've made it a rule for myself to never be dogmatic about understanding the Bible -- the writing is definitely true, but my interpretation can be false.

And I understand what you're saying about people being ultra-stubborn in their accepted interpretations. It annoys me also, to talk to a person with whom it is impossible to make a connection. I hope you're not thinking about leaving the site, though.
 
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hiscosmicgoldfish

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hiscosmicgoldfish, if you don't mind me saying what I think, everyone's opinion on the end-times issues is only an opinion. I don't spend hardly any time here on the "Eschatology" forum, but when I do come in, I'm bothered by people's detailed, point-by-point interpretations of prophecies. The reason it annoys me is that there are as many interpretations as there are people, but only one of them can be right, at maximum. That's why I've made it a rule for myself to never be dogmatic about understanding the Bible -- the writing is definitely true, but my interpretation can be false.

And I understand what you're saying about people being ultra-stubborn in their accepted interpretations. It annoys me also, to talk to a person with whom it is impossible to make a connection. I hope you're not thinking about leaving the site, though.

I know my interpretation could be wrong.. but I like to think that I can draw in enough information from various sources, to form an opinion. I have been coming to this site for a few years, and I have only really learned a few things from other people, but what I do find useful is bouncing my ideas against the forum, not that anyone really listens, but to see if there are any real problems with my various theories. It’s like I can test the theory, and if it doesn’t work, go away and do some study, and see if I can figure out a solution. If someone comes up with a genuine problem to a theory, then I need to consider that, and I have.
But about eschatology being an opinion.. I think it is more than that.. it is based on the books that they have read.. and I was looking at books sales, and Tim F. LeHaye dominating the popular books on this subject, and so was thinking that this is why so many people have these obviously erroneous ideas. As it’s ‘Bible according to Tim LeHaye’.
Why is Tim LeHaye a superior biblical scholar to me? Because he has been indoctrinated into his dispensationalist eschatology at his bible school? Whereas I have never been to any bible school, and would not on principle.
But the question is, would anyone actually be interested in reading about the truth? Would it sell? It seems that these days people are interested in the new-age and the Mayans, not the bible. And to get a book to sell, like LeHaye, you need to make it full of exiting wars, Russia attacking Israel, witnesses walking around Israel, the antichrist being devil possessed and turning up in a rebuilt Jewish temple.. all that.. I really believe that all that is false, including his Rapture, and is a dangerous deception.
It’s dangerous because it causes a situation where people are not prepared for persecution, and do not know what is really going on in the world. You get the Americans supporting Zionism, and the wars against the Muslim world, and this is in part due to this crack-pot interpretation of the bible, which vast numbers of non-Christians can see for what it is.. and it ends up with supposed Christians being totally blind to the genocidal criminals in Israel, still believing that they are the ‘chosen people’ and we should pray for them.
My views have changed a lot since I’ve been coming to this forum. I used to think that the Pope was the antichrist.. but that didn’t work out. Also I now think that the restrainer is the angel Michael, not the Roman Empire.
Perhaps some writing on the geo-political, and how the bible interpretation is involved in American and Anglo political agendas.
 
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Biblewriter

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First, thank you for taking the time to construct a careful and thoughtful explanation. I do appreciate this.
[/quote

And thank you for taking the time to make a thoughtfil response.

It is true that Russian and Ukrainian people first became an organized entity with the Kievan Rus (and even that was established by tribes from the north, not the Scythians from the south). However, we must differentiate between territory and the people who occupy that territory. For example, the peninsula known as Florida which the US controls today was at different times controlled by Spain, Britain, and various indigenous tribes. Of course, the land doesn't move around much, but the people do. If the Scythians are mentioned, this doesn't automatically mean Ukraine, therefore Russia. That is a slippery slope. Especially since today's (radical) Ukrainian government is trying to cut all association with Russian history.

You appear to have missed the centralm point of what I said. Ezekiel 38:1 does not say that God is a king of Magog. It says he is "of the land of Magog. Thus, the point is not who are the modern descendants of Magog, but where did Magog live. And history is very plain that the land of Magog was the grasslands north of the Black Sea, that is, basically the Ukrane, but it also included much of the southern portion of today's Russia.

Not to be difficult, but you just exposed your basic error: you were seeking evidence that would implicate Russia as Gog. If this were a legal proceeding or a scientific inquiry, you would have come across as partial and seeking a specific predetermined outcome. I've found this to be true -- whenever people want a certain conclusion, they always find "Biblical" evidence to support it. For example, proponents of homosexuality somehow manage to back up their lifestyle with specific passages. And for those verses which are clearly (to me, at least) against homosexuality, they find a way to rationalize away. In other words, seek and you shall find.

Again, you seem to have missed the point. The central thrust of my inquiry was to determine whether or not the common conception that this passage was about Russia was correct. The question I adressed was, "it is well known that this is commonly believed to refer to Russia, but is this correct?"

I think it's a mistake to associate different peoples by just the similarity of the names. Like you said, the Meschera name didn't even exist until about 1800 years after Ezekiel. Why would the Bible try to confuse us this way? If it's naming a people who weren't even around yet, it could avoid the confusion and simply name Russia directly. In Russian, Meshech sounds exactly the same as in the English account, not the "equivalent" of Meschera (that kind of phrasing is plainly dishonest). And the Meschera tribes were displaced by the actual Slavic civilization -- the nationality which constitutes the majority of Russians and many Eastern-European countries. I've also heard the (unoriginal) idea that Tubal goes to Tobol, and Tobol goes to Tobolsk, and Tobolsk indicates southern Russia and Siberia. However, in the Russian Bible, when it mentions "Tubal," it is actually written "Fuval." I can't say which pronunciation is closer to the original, English or Russian, but Fuval does not sound the least bit like Tobolsk (only one letter in seven is the same). And in either case, why use Tobolsk, a city with a population in the five-digits to represent a region that has cities with populations over a million, like Perm? I have an answer -- this is a mere coincidence, fitted to look like proof for the hypothesis that Russia will invade Israel.

Again, you seem to have completely missed the point. The actual historical data is that Meshech and Tubal occupied the eastern portion of Asia Minor until the Turkish Invasion of 1050, when they fled in mass into the regions to the north. Armenian literature piblished during the next 100 or so years was almost all written in various locations north of the Black sea. This is unquestionable history. What is also unquestionable is that no name resembling either Meshech or Tubal occurs in any Russian chronicle earlier that about 100 years after this migration.


Besides, saying that similarity in names proves relation is silly. That would mean that Swaziland and Swizerland must be the same location, because they sound "similar enough," in English at least.

The similarity of names would not be highly significant without the historical data I have cited, But coupled with this historical data, it is indeed significant.

Maybe this was a long time ago and you don't exactly remember, but like I said, "Tubal" of Ezekiel 38:2 and 38:3 in the Russian Bible is written, letter-per-letter, as "Fuval." (I'm holding it in my hands right now.) The fact that you are writing Tobolsk is a dead-giveaway that you've formed your conclusion before the end of your study. And Meschovsk in reality has a population of less than 4500 people. I doubt God would identify Russia by one small city, Tobolsk, and one large village, Meschovsk, which leads me to think that these associations are nothing more than grasping at straws.

I am quite aware that Moscheviska is only a small city in Russia. But that is how the Russian read the Russian Bible to me. As to the word Tubal, all I know is how a citizen of Russia read this to me from a Russian Bible. And He distincly pronounced our English Tubal in Ezekiel 38:2 as Toboliska.

"Rosh," I'm sure, isn't Russia. (First off, Russia is an English word -- the Russians themselves call it Rossiya, Germans call it Russland, etc.) I know the Russian language intimately, it is my first language, and I understand the confusion about the Russian reading "Prince of Rosh" as "Knyaz Rosha." Next is a short explanation of Russian grammar, but please follow me. The English language mainly uses the preposition "of" to denote possession. In Russian, there is no preposition "of." The way to show that something belongs to the subject is with a suffix on the end of the word. For example, "Berlin" in Russian is still called "Berlin." But when you want to say, "Mayor of Berlin," you would say "Mer Berlina." The suffixed "a" on the end of that word means that the mayor "belongs" to Berlin. I chose Berlin because it is masculine in Russian, just like Rosh. But it gets more complicated, depending on if the subject is feminine (for example, "Amerika," would turn into "Ameriki", as in Soedinennye Shtaty Ameriki or United States of America) or gender-neuter. Apologies if that is too long and confusing. The point is that "Rosh" is still written "Rosh" in the Russian nominative case. The fact that it is written in that one verse as "Rosha" ("of Rosh") is a fluke, due to the nuances of the Russian grammatical system. You either misunderstood your friend who explained it to you, or he might have emigrated so long ago that his Russian was somewhat rusty.

His specific explanation of this was "Rosh is people, Rosha is country."

But you do not appear to be aware that the ancient Hebrew, in which Ezekiel was written, did not contain any vowels at all in the original Hebrew text, this name was only Rsh. The Hebrew vowel points were not adden until around a millennium after this was written.

You seem to be now exposing the basis of your argument. You do not waht Rosh to mean the Rus., so you are doing exactly what you accused me of, trying to make the Bible mean whatever you want it to mean.

In either case, it seems that you are forgetting the Rosh in Genesis, who is one of Jacob's grandsons.

Without a reference, I cannot comment on this, but I find no such name anywhere in Genesis.

When talking about the Scythians (Magog), you assume that the Bible means actual descendents of Scythians, not a group with a similar sounding name. Following your logic, the Prince of Rosh is a nation that is descended from Jacob himself. Not Russia.

I have already answered this.

[quott\e]I'm sure you're aware of this, but I'll bring it up. Modern Russia is not a "nation" in the sense of classical, ancient nations. It is very heterogeneous. I remember reading that there are close to 200 distinct nations with their own languages in Russia today, and a good proportion of those nations have their own writing. So the way I see it, it is ludicrous to attempt to pick one tiny people inside Russia, a remnant of an ancient civilization which may be mentioned in the Bible, and to conclude that the prophecy speaks about Russia. The way that Russia is full of different kinds of people, it is close to impossible to not have representatives of all ancient Eurasian people living in it (Hebrews also).
:)
Although it is commonly known that many Christian commentators have made this connection, what is not so commonly known is how long Christians have thought this. The earliest case of this that I personally know about was a sermon by Patriarch Proclus of Constanople written between 434 and 447. (see Nicephorus Kallistus, XIV, 37) So this has nothing to do with modern politics.

The world is a very inter-connected place nowadays. I'm willing to bet that there are descendents of Gomer on every continent, maybe even in every individual country. America itself is called the Great Melting Pot, because of how many nations and civilizations make up this country. Therefore, I cannot pretend to know which specific entities are mentioned in this account.

The historical data is that Gomer is the Celts, or Kelts as they are sometimes called. Althjough Keltish peoples are widely spread, there can be no doubt that most od Western Europe, and through them most of the United States, Canada, and Australia are Keltish in their origins.

I totally agree. The way the world is aligned right now, for such a thing to happen would be surreal.



The way I see it, Christians can't even agree on things that already did happen, like the creation of the universe. There is no consensus about this in the Church. If we can't even approximately reconstruct what already did happen, what chance is there for us to see exactly what will happen?

I think God meant end-times prophecy to be cloudy and unsure, so that when it actually happens, mainly Christians will recognize it.

I reject this idea as totally incorrect. I agree that much of Bible prophecy is written in symbiolic language that can be interpreted in a variety of ways. But much of it was also written in clearly stated language that was internded to be understood. Take, for example, the prophecies about the first coming of Jesus. Every one of them was clearly stated in explicit language, and every one was literally fulfilles exactly as stated. I do not believe that it is possible to even begin to understand Bible prophecy without beginning with the assumption that explicitly stated pronouncements about coming events mean exactly what they say. No more, and no less.

The popular ideas, like Russia invading Israel or the microchip in the forehead, I believe them to be wrong by definition.

I agree that most of them are wrong, and come from assumptions about the meanings of what the Bible sdays, rather than by careful study of what it actually says. But I will note here that whiule it clearly says that Russia will invade Israel, it just as clearly says that basically the entire modern world will come with them. (Chgina and Japan are not explicitly mantiones, but it does explicitly say that "many others" will come with them.

The reason is that even non-Christians have heard these things for their entire lives. I think that when things come to pass, non-Christians will be caught unaware, and that can't happen if the beaten-to-death scenarios (like the Left Behind books, for example) come true. I hope I'm making enough sense.

I, too, wholly reject the scenario presented in the Left Behind Series.

This series puts the Russian invasion at the beginning and wholly omits the central (human) figure of end time prophecy, namely, "the Assyrian."
 
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unbreakablelight

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unbreakablelight

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Manmohan Singh - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Manmohan Singh (Hindi: मनमोहन सिंह, Punjabi: ਮਨਮੋਹਨ ਸਿੰਘ, born 26 September 1932) is the 17th and current Prime Minister of the Republic of India. He is the first person of Sikh faith to hold the office. An economist by profession, Singh was the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India from 1982 to 1985, the Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission of India from 1985 to 1987 and the Finance Minister of India from 1991 to 1996.

Guru Gobind Singh - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Guru Gobind Singh Jee (Punjabi: ਗੁਰੂ ਗੋਬਿੰਦ ਸਿੰਘ, IPA: [gʊɾu gobɪn̪d̪ sɪ́ŋg]) (December 22, 1666 – 7 October 1708) was the tenth Guru of Sikhism. He was born in Patna, Bihar in India and became a Guru on November 11, 1675, at the age of nine years, succeeding his father Guru Tegh Bahadur. He was the leader of the Sikh faith, a warrior, a poet, and a philosopher.
 
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alexgb00

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You appear to have missed the centralm point of what I said. Ezekiel 38:1 does not say that God is a king of Magog. It says he is "of the land of Magog. Thus, the point is not who are the modern descendants of Magog, but where did Magog live. And history is very plain that the land of Magog was the grasslands north of the Black Sea, that is, basically the Ukrane, but it also included much of the southern portion of today's Russia.

I'm sorry that I missed your point. I understand what you say now, about the reference being to the land of Magog, not the people. Still, if these people were displaced in the 11th century AD (long after the writing of the prophet, and long before today), what makes you certain that it isn't talking about the locations where they lived originally?

Also, you disregarded my point. From what you say, the "land of Magog" can mean any nation that shares borders with the extinct Scythian civilization. In addition to Russia, that could also be the Ukraine, any nation in the Caucasus mountain area, even many of the central-Asian nations. I don't think it's academically honest to settle on Russia. But you could be right.

Again, you seem to have missed the point. The central thrust of my inquiry was to determine whether or not the common conception that this passage was about Russia was correct. The question I adressed was, "it is well known that this is commonly believed to refer to Russia, but is this correct?"

I understand you now. You were just checking the hypothesis against the Biblical facts. I just thought, from what you said before, that you started your investigation from a "clean slate," without looking at any of the common theories. Here's the thing -- every theory for anything has some support. Otherwise, nobody would believe it. The people who say that the moon landings were faked also see things that point to that conclusion, and there are many of those who believe. The point is that it is relatively easy to prop up any kind of theory with little bits of "evidence." That's why there exist ideas about references to aliens in the Bible. I'm looking for things more concrete for the idea that Russia will invade Israel, rather than phonetic similarity of some words, etc.

Again, you seem to have completely missed the point. The actual historical data is that Meshech and Tubal occupied the eastern portion of Asia Minor until the Turkish Invasion of 1050, when they fled in mass into the regions to the north. Armenian literature piblished during the next 100 or so years was almost all written in various locations north of the Black sea. This is unquestionable history. What is also unquestionable is that no name resembling either Meshech or Tubal occurs in any Russian chronicle earlier that about 100 years after this migration.

Tobolsk was founded by Russian cossacks at the end of the sixteenth century. The fact of who founded it (not Scythian tribes) and when (550 years after the Scythian migration) demonstrates to me that this is an independent occurrence. The only evidence that has been brought up to link Tobolsk to Tubal is the similarity in names in English (irrelevant at best).
;)

Like I've been saying, when someone wants to pull this kind of "evidence" together, they will succeed with enough creativity. Watch this:

I propose that the State of Oregon will invade Israel. Meschech sounds very similar to Meacham, OR. And Tubal sounds dead-close to Tumalo, OR. Seriously, of course I don't believe this "idea," but the point is that there are many geographic locations in Russia (many, many more than in Oregon). Statistically, it is a 100% certainty that you will find two cities which sound similar to Meschech and Tubal (or Fuval, as in the Russian Bible).

The similarity of names would not be highly significant without the historical data I have cited, But coupled with this historical data, it is indeed significant.

No, it absolutely is not. The reason I'm so insistent on this is that every language has its own pronunciation and even entirely different names. I don't know if you speak any other languages besides English (it helps to give perspective), but I can see the huge differences in the way that just the Biblical names are written and spoken. I have countless examples of names for the same place which are completely different in different languages. I doubt that God favors the English language over the Russian, German, or Hebrew. The "connection" which an English-speaker makes with words like "Tubal" or "Rosh" are lost in the next language. This demonstrates that this "word match" game isn't a divine inspiration, but a coincidental quirk of the English translation. I really hope you accept that, because, to a great degree, this whole theory which you champion rides on this concept.

I am quite aware that Moscheviska is only a small city in Russia. But that is how the Russian read the Russian Bible to me. As to the word Tubal, all I know is how a citizen of Russia read this to me from a Russian Bible. And He distincly pronounced our English Tubal in Ezekiel 38:2 as Toboliska.

I know we were talking about Meschovsk before, but "Moscheviska" doesn't produce a single hit with Google (so I'm not sure what you mean). And I'm trying to give you the benefit of the doubt, but your friend has no idea what he's talking about. Maybe he was playing with you, since "Toboliska" isn't a Russian location, nor is it any kind of Russian word.

Anyway, it insults me to not be trusted, one Christian to another. Here, if you can't take my word for it, see for yourself: Ezekiel 38:2-3 in Russian. Notice where it has the word "Фувала?" That transliterates into the latin alphabet as "Fuvala" ("Ф" is the cyrillic "F," and "В" is the cyrillic "V"). I'll reiterate -- "Fuval" sounds nothing like "Tobolsk." Like they say in fictional stories, any similarity is purely coincidental. This is important, because this similarity is the most solid support for the theory which we're discussing.

In case you think I'm making stuff up, here, actually listen to it in Russian. At the 8-9 second mark, he begins reading verse 2. At the 14 second mark, he lists Rosh, Meshech and Tubal, sounds like "Rosha, Meschecha i Fuvala" (and it is repeated from verse 3 at 24 seconds). Please tell me, does that sound like "Meschovsk" and "Tobolsk," like you said it sounded before? Without any funny business, now, truthfully.

His specific explanation of this was "Rosh is people, Rosha is country."

Like I said before, I am offended that you seem to distrust me in my knowledge of Russian or in my ability to read. What he should've said (probably did, but maybe you misunderstood him) was that "Rosh" refers to an entity in the nominative case, and "Rosha" is still Rosh but in the accusative case, because it is talking to the prince of Rosh (implies possession).

And I'll say it again. "Russia" is only pronounced "rush-uh" in the English language. In Russian, it sounds like "ros-see-ya." In German, it is called "rus-land." Neither in Russian nor in German is there a "sh" sound in the word. I don't know how it is pronounced in any other language, but that should be indicative -- of the three languages here, only in one does it sound the least bit similar to "Rosh." And like I said before, I doubt that God would only open the truth to the English-speaking world by relying on English-pronunciation specifics in His text.

But you do not appear to be aware that the ancient Hebrew, in which Ezekiel was written, did not contain any vowels at all in the original Hebrew text, this name was only Rsh.

You're right, I wasn't aware of that. But if that's actually true, then you're making my point for me. If the only letters which originally existed in the text were RSH, then there is no way to now how RSH actually sounded. Maybe it was "Iresh." It could even be "Aureash." That undermines the connection that people are making to the English name for Russia even farther.

You seem to be now exposing the basis of your argument. You do not waht Rosh to mean the Rus., so you are doing exactly what you accused me of, trying to make the Bible mean whatever you want it to mean.

If you'll notice, I haven't brought forward a single hypothesis on these prophecies. I think the safe thing is to remain neutral and not claim to speak for God. That way, when these things start to unfold, we'll be able to see them with a clear mind. But if we stick "religiously" to a specific theory of our own creative imagination, we (Christians) might wind up looking in the wrong direction and be taken by surprise.

Frankly, my only point is that we can't be dogmatic about who, when, etc. will fulfill the prophecies of the Bible. I do admit that I don't want foreigners to think of my people as an "evil race" (especially being blamed for doing something that hasn't occurred yet). If you are an American patriot, I'm sure you feel the same thing about your country. I leave the possibility of a Russian invasion of Israel open, but I think the Scripture is vague enough and the evidence is sparse enough that one can't treat this as the one true interpetation. Only time will tell. That's my understanding.

Without a reference, I cannot comment on this, but I find no such name anywhere in Genesis.

Genesis 46:21 names Rosh as one of Benjamin's sons.

The earliest case of this that I personally know about was a sermon by Patriarch Proclus of Constanople written between 434 and 447. (see Nicephorus Kallistus, XIV, 37) So this has nothing to do with modern politics.

I cannot find that text on the internet. Please, if you know where it is, send me a link. Seeing as how the Russians didn't even exist in the fifth century, there is no way that it could be a reference to them. As I've understood, the idea that Russia is Gog was the brainchild of Hal Lindsey in the 1970s. And that definitely was politically motivated.

I'm sure that you have no political / nationalistic reasons to propagate this subject, but unfortunately, it still leaves a trace of xenophobia on the minds of many people who hear it. I know that the majority of American evangelicals are distrustful of Europeans, especially Russians, and theories such as the one we're discussing cement those kinds of sentiments. I've personally been on the receiving end of hate for being "one of those Russians," because everyone knows that we're conniving and evil.
n14.gif


Althjough Keltish peoples are widely spread, there can be no doubt that most od Western Europe, and through them most of the United States, Canada, and Australia are Keltish in their origins.

Like you say, these people are spread out by now to every corner in the world. The same with any other civilization. The world has become very connected, and it's not realistic to expect any nationality to stay within a certain border. That's why I think it's hard to know for sure which countries these are.

I reject this idea as totally incorrect. I agree that much of Bible prophecy is written in symbiolic language that can be interpreted in a variety of ways. But much of it was also written in clearly stated language that was internded to be understood. Take, for example, the prophecies about the first coming of Jesus. Every one of them was clearly stated in explicit language, and every one was literally fulfilles exactly as stated.

As for the first coming of Christ, that is the perfect example of people blinded by pre-conceived ideas. The Jewish people added some things to their perception of the Messiah that the Bible didn't specify. As a result, they couldn't recognize the Savior whom they awaited so long. I'm sure that the same could be true in this case. People have an idea about the anti-Christ, the mark of the Beast, etc. and they might completely miss it if they're expecting a very specific reinterpretation of the Scripture. Look at what hiscosmicgoldfish says above. I think that he also realizes that a Christian can't be insistent on one specific viewpoint. Especially, I think, a dangerously-propped-up idea like the "Russian invasion of Israel."

I will give you an example: whom does the rider on the white horse in Revelation 6:2 represent? I've heard cosmically contradictory accounts -- some say that this is an image of Christ, others say it's the anti-Christ. And this is only one verse! I'd like to believe that everything is so easy to understand in the Bible, but the facts show otherwise. I've wondered about why Christianity is spit up into so many different denominations (I heard that there are about 1700 distinct Christian denominations). Isn't Christ's Church supposed to be one entity? But throughout history, Christians have even resorted to war to settle who understands the Bible more correctly.

The point is that there definitely is no consensus on many things. Not just doctrine, but prophecy too.

I agree that most of them are wrong, and come from assumptions about the meanings of what the Bible sdays, rather than by careful study of what it actually says. But I will note here that whiule it clearly says that Russia will invade Israel, it just as clearly says that basically the entire modern world will come with them. (Chgina and Japan are not explicitly mantiones, but it does explicitly say that "many others" will come with them.

Well, for me personally, there still isn't enough evidence to draw a detailed picture of the scenario. It just seems that this idea employs mostly suspicion, speculation, coincidental phonetic similarities and a good deal of russophobia / popular Western demagogical belief.

I, too, wholly reject the scenario presented in the Left Behind Series.

This series puts the Russian invasion at the beginning and wholly omits the central (human) figure of end time prophecy, namely, "the Assyrian."

Please briefly explain "the Assyrian."
 
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alexgb00

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What is the definition of "spam," unbreakablelight? It irritates me to have to see you assassinate the character of different public figures. I don't know where you're from, but in many countries, this constitutes libel, an actionable offense. And what's the deal with totally random, irrelevant posts like these?

1.

2.

I know I'm not a moderator, but this seems to be abuse of the boards.
 
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unbreakablelight

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Job 34

10"Therefore, listen to me, you men of understanding.
Far be it from God to do wickedness,
And from the Almighty to do wrong.
11"For He pays a man according to his work,
And makes him find it according to his way.
12"Surely, God will not act wickedly,
And the Almighty will not pervert justice.
13"Who gave Him authority over the earth?
And who has laid on Him the whole world?
14"If He should determine to do so,
If He should gather to Himself His spirit and His breath,
15All flesh would perish together,
And man would return to dust.
16"But if you have understanding, hear this;
Listen to the sound of my words.
17"Shall one who hates justice rule?
And will you condemn the righteous mighty One,
18Who says to a king, 'Worthless one,'
To nobles, 'Wicked ones';
19Who shows no partiality to princes
 
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zeke37

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I said i was going to go away and look through Rev. again, and I will, but thanks anyway for getting the quotes. The water here is the water of the sea, and is symbolic of the waters around the med-sea area.. Italy, Rome, and the old Kingdoms, Palestine etc. The water here symbolises the old power empires, the mass of people, and the power of the Roman Empire and the Catholic Church.


according to Rev17:15, the waters are the people....

15And he saith unto me, The waters which thou sawest, where the harlot sitteth, are peoples, and multitudes, and nations, and tongues.

it is from the people that this world power arises...tongues and nations...


When i was reading Rev. some time ago, a verse of script was 'highlighted' to me like you'd done.. it was ... 'And the earth helped the woman, and the earth opened her mouth, and swallowed up the flood'.. that's it! i thought .. that's the confirmation.. the earth.. which is mentioned previously in Rev 13 about the 2nd beast.. that comes out of the earth.. that beast is different from the other beast and it comes out of the earth, rather than the sea..
the sea is the people, so the multiheaded political power rises from peoples/naions/tongues (as Rev17:15 teaches)

it is, i believe the USA. The earth swallows the woman.. is the USA taking in the church, and giving refuge, from the persecution from the flood.. the persecution mass of people from the old beast-system empire..
If that's all there is in Rev. as cross-ref to the OT, then i'll have to go away for good from this site, as there wont be anything left to talk about.
I would have proved the case.. to myself anyway.. and if not to all those on this forum.. then so be it.
But i am going to read through it again anyway.
no, Babylon is a world system, that exists in every country....or will exist...

it is not a specific nation today...but when the time comes, there will be a merging of nations into a supernation (NWO) that will be Babylon...it is ideals and peoples and wrong thought, and all that is unholy....


it is not the USA or any single country.
 
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unbreakablelight

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2 Esdras, 4 Ezra

2 Esdras


[43] And they shall go on steadily to Babylon, and shall destroy her.
[
44] They shall come to her and surround her; they shall pour out the tempest and all its wrath upon her; then the dust and smoke shall go up to heaven, and all who are about her shall wail over her.
[45] And those who survive shall serve those who have destroyed her.
[46] And you, Asia, who share in the glamour of Babylon and the glory of her person --
[47] woe to you, miserable wretch! For you have made yourself like her; you have decked out your daughters in harlotry to please and glory in your lovers, who have always lusted after you.
[48] You have imitated that hateful harlot in all her deeds and devices

[1] Woe to you, Babylon and Asia! Woe to you, Egypt and Syria!
[2] Gird yourselves with sackcloth and haircloth, and wail for your children, and lament for them; for your destruction is at hand.

Babylon is a specific nation and that nation is the USA
 
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alexgb00

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your caught up in the spirit of the times

these public figures are almost certainly corrupt regardless of whether they are who I say they are or not
Well, I sure agree that they are corrupt. :amen: I think every politician in the world leaves his conscience and morals at the door when they come to work. We can't do anything to change that. But being corrupt is a long way to being the anti-Christ.

I'm sure you realize it that countless people have been accused of being the anti-Christ in the last 2000 years, but every single one of those was falsely accused. I'm not expecting anything different from this case (of course, only with time can we know for sure).
 
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I want to begin by saying that I deeply appreciate the respectful way that you disagree with me. If we can discuss things respectfully, we can sort out many erroneous ideas, and might even learn from each other.

I'm sorry that I missed your point. I understand what you say now, about the reference being to the land of Magog, not the people. Still, if these people were displaced in the 11th century AD (long after the writing of the prophet, and long before today), what makes you certain that it isn't talking about the locations where they lived originally?

I believe that it was talking about the location where these people lived at the time this book of the Bible was written, and has nothing to do with where they lived either before or after that time.

Also, you disregarded my point. From what you say, the "land of Magog" can mean any nation that shares borders with the extinct Scythian civilization. In addition to Russia, that could also be the Ukraine, any nation in the Caucasus mountain area, even many of the central-Asian nations. I don't think it's academically honest to settle on Russia. But you could be right.
You must be aware of the fact that to an American mind Russia=USSR=all of these nations. I know that this is not correct, but it is the mindset of the Americans who are discussing this. I have noticed recently news reports claiming that Putin is trying to again establish Russian dominance over this entire area. I do not assume this is correct, but if it is and he manages to pull it off, it would re-establish the accuracy of such a mindset.

I understand you now. You were just checking the hypothesis against the Biblical facts. I just thought, from what you said before, that you started your investigation from a "clean slate," without looking at any of the common theories. /snip for length/



Tobolsk was founded by Russian cossacks at the end of the sixteenth century. The fact of who founded it (not Scythian tribes) and when (550 years after the Scythian migration) demonstrates to me that this is an independent occurrence.

I do not understand your repeated reference to Scythian tribes. I was very plain that the reference to Scythia was only territorial. The tribal references are to Rosh, Meshech, and Tubal.

The only evidence that has been brought up to link Tobolsk to Tubal is the similarity in names in English (irrelevant at best).
;)
The conclusive evidence of their mass migration into this area is not just a similarity in names.

Like I've been saying, when someone wants to pull this kind of "evidence" together, they will succeed with enough creativity. /snip for length/

No, it absolutely is not. The reason I'm so insistent on this is that every language has its own pronunciation and even entirely different names. I don't know if you speak any other languages besides English (it helps to give perspective), but I can see the huge differences in the way that just the Biblical names are written and spoken. I have countless examples of names for the same place which are completely different in different languages. I doubt that God favors the English language over the Russian, German, or Hebrew. The "connection" which an English-speaker makes with words like "Tubal" or "Rosh" are lost in the next language. This demonstrates that this "word match" game isn't a divine inspiration, but a coincidental quirk of the English translation. I really hope you accept that, because, to a great degree, this whole theory which you champion rides on this concept.
While names sometimes change radically from one language to another, they normally change by fixed rules. I do not have at hand the specific information about Meshech and Tubal, but I did catalog the name changes for Gomer. Again, the ancient Hebrew only said GMR, but the later Jews read this as Gomer. The History of the Armenians, written by Moses of Khronsis only fifty years after the Armenian language was reduced to writing, listed the sons of Noah, changing the Hebrew Gomer Gamer. In the ancient Assyrian texts, we find this people as the Gammerra, and in the Greek literature they were the Cimmerians. All these name changes followed fixed rules. But the Romans called this people the Gauls and in modern times thay are called the Celts. These name changes were drastic, but as they occurred in recorded history, theyu can be traced with certainty.

I know we were talking about Meschovsk before, but "Moscheviska" doesn't produce a single hit with Google (so I'm not sure what you mean).
Are you actua;lly going to tell me that you did not notice how bad my spelling was in my last post?;)

(Actually, my fingers are crippled, so I have to type with two fingers and I have no feeling in my fingertips, so I make many typographical errors. I usually catch most of them, but did a very bad joblast time.)

And I'm trying to give you the benefit of the doubt, but your friend has no idea what he's talking about. Maybe he was playing with you, since "Toboliska" isn't a Russian location, nor is it any kind of Russian word.

Anyway, it insults me to not be trusted, one Christian to another. Here, if you can't take my word for it, see for yourself: Ezekiel 38:2-3 in Russian. Notice where it has the word "Фувала?" That transliterates into the latin alphabet as "Fuvala" ("Ф" is the cyrillic "F," and "В" is the cyrillic "V"). I'll reiterate -- "Fuval" sounds nothing like "Tobolsk." Like they say in fictional stories, any similarity is purely coincidental. This is important, because this similarity is the most solid support for the theory which we're discussing.

In case you think I'm making stuff up, here, actually listen to it in Russian. At the 8-9 second mark, he begins reading verse 2. At the 14 second mark, he lists Rosh, Meshech and Tubal, sounds like "Rosha, Meschecha i Fuvala" (and it is repeated from verse 3 at 24 seconds). Please tell me, does that sound like "Meschovsk" and "Tobolsk," like you said it sounded before? Without any funny business, now, truthfully.
Ok, you have proved your point on this one.

Like I said before, I am offended that you seem to distrust me in my knowledge of Russian or in my ability to read. What he should've said (probably did, but maybe you misunderstood him) was that "Rosh" refers to an entity in the nominative case, and "Rosha" is still Rosh but in the accusative case, because it is talking to the prince of Rosh (implies possession).
I think he was probably tryiong to oversimplify to a neophyte.

And I'll say it again. "Russia" is only pronounced "rush-uh" in the English language. In Russian, it sounds like "ros-see-ya." In German, it is called "rus-land." Neither in Russian nor in German is there a "sh" sound in the word. I don't know how it is pronounced in any other language, but that should be indicative -- of the three languages here, only in one does it sound the least bit similar to "Rosh." And like I said before, I doubt that God would only open the truth to the English-speaking world by relying on English-pronunciation specifics in His text.



You're right, I wasn't aware of that. But if that's actually true, then you're making my point for me. If the only letters which originally existed in the text were RSH, then there is no way to now how RSH actually sounded. Maybe it was "Iresh." It could even be "Aureash." That undermines the connection that people are making to the English name for Russia even farther.



If you'll notice, I haven't brought forward a single hypothesis on these prophecies. I think the safe thing is to remain neutral and not claim to speak for God. That way, when these things start to unfold, we'll be able to see them with a clear mind. But if we stick "religiously" to a specific theory of our own creative imagination, we (Christians) might wind up looking in the wrong direction and be taken by surprise.

Frankly, my only point is that we can't be dogmatic about who, when, etc. will fulfill the prophecies of the Bible. I do admit that I don't want foreigners to think of my people as an "evil race" (especially being blamed for doing something that hasn't occurred yet). If you are an American patriot, I'm sure you feel the same thing about your country. I leave the possibility of a Russian invasion of Israel open, but I think the Scripture is vague enough and the evidence is sparse enough that one can't treat this as the one true interpetation. Only time will tell. That's my understanding.
I understand your point, and your sensitivity to the common conclusion.

names Rosh as one of Benjamin's sons.
Yes, I see. But I am not certain what this has to do with our discussion.

I cannot find that text on the internet. Please, if you know where it is, send me a link. Seeing as how the Russians didn't even exist in the fifth century, there is no way that it could be a reference to them. As I've understood, the idea that Russia is Gog was the brainchild of Hal Lindsey in the 1970s. And that definitely was politically motivated.
I got this information from the first volume of George Vernadsky’s highly reputed work “A History of Russia” pp. 138-139. New Haven: Yale University Press, 1943. I am not aware that it exists anywhere on the internet.

I found this reference because I was looking for the oldest occurence of the name Rus in any literature, and this was Vernadsky's report of the earliest known usage of the name. But at a later time I found a photograph of a marble fragment from ancient Rome which was obviously a part of a monument of some kind. it had the name Ros inscribed on it, but as the fragment was small, there was nothing elst to give it any context.

But even in modern times, this idea most certainly did not originate with Hal Lindsey. It was clearly set forth in a number of prophetic commentaries written in the 1850's through the 1950's. In the 1800's it was taught by John Darby, William Kelly, and George Cutting, if I am not mistaken (I did not bother to re-check this for this post) and was taken up in a modified form by Dwight Pentecost, who I believe wrote around 1950, and whose work is the basis of most modern prophetic commentaries. None of these except Dwight Pentecost could have had any political reasons for such ideas, for they wrote long before Karl Marx was born.

I'm sure that you have no political / nationalistic reasons to propagate this subject, but unfortunately, it still leaves a trace of xenophobia on the minds of many people who hear it. I know that the majority of American evangelicals are distrustful of Europeans, especially Russians, and theories such as the one we're discussing cement those kinds of sentiments. I've personally been on the receiving end of hate for being "one of those Russians," because everyone knows that we're conniving and evil.
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Like you say, these people are spread out by now to every corner in the world. The same with any other civilization. The world has become very connected, and it's not realistic to expect any nationality to stay within a certain border. That's why I think it's hard to know for sure which countries these are.
It is not at all hard to find what peoples claim Celtic or Keltic origins today. google it.

As for the first coming of Christ, that is the perfect example of people blinded by pre-conceived ideas. The Jewish people added some things to their perception of the Messiah that the Bible didn't specify. As a result, they couldn't recognize the Savior whom they awaited so long. I'm sure that the same could be true in this case. People have an idea about the anti-Christ, the mark of the Beast, etc. and they might completely miss it if they're expecting a very specific reinterpretation of the Scripture. Look at what hiscosmicgoldfish says above. I think that he also realizes that a Christian can't be insistent on one specific viewpoint. Especially, I think, a dangerously-propped-up idea like the "Russian invasion of Israel."

I will give you an example: whom does the rider on the white horse in Revelation 6:2 represent? I've heard cosmically contradictory accounts -- some say that this is an image of Christ, others say it's the anti-Christ. And this is only one verse! I'd like to believe that everything is so easy to understand in the Bible, but the facts show otherwise. I've wondered about why Christianity is spit up into so many different denominations (I heard that there are about 1700 distinct Christian denominations). Isn't Christ's Church supposed to be one entity? But throughout history, Christians have even resorted to war to settle who understands the Bible more correctly.
I, too, am disgusted with the far out interpretations many make of the deep symbols that occupy much of Bible prophecy. I avoid such interpretation, preferring to concentrate on expressly stated prophecies made in plain, simple language.

The point is that there definitely is no consensus on many things. Not just doctrine, but prophecy too.
Particularly prophecy.

Well, for me personally, there still isn't enough evidence to draw a detailed picture of the scenario. It just seems that this idea employs mostly suspicion, speculation, coincidental phonetic similarities and a good deal of russophobia / popular Western demagogical belief.
If this were only advanced in modern times, this would be a legitimate complaint. But the old (and even ancient) comments on this most certainly did not have such a basis.

Please briefly explain "the Assyrian."
I could hardly do this briefly, But I started a thread on "the Assyrian," in which I explained in detail what the scriptures say about this individual. I am deeply perplexed about how he could have been missed by so many modern teachers when the scriptures about him are so plain, so explicit, and so numerous. Of course, as always in this forum, some have objected to this in very childish ways. Others have challanged it respectfully, but I think I was able to answer them successfully.
 
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