Hi Benefactor and Scottsmen:
Thanks,
That said then I take it you don't believe in an earthly kingdom?
Of course there is an
‘earthly kingdom’ where
‘David himself’ (
Eze. 34:23-25) rules over the
Kingdom of God “on earth AS IT IS in heaven.” Matt. 6:10. Jesus Christ is the Lord OF HEAVEN.
Isa. 66:1 (
my thread). :0)
Would I be correct to state it this way, you are a Dispensational A-millennialist?
I am a member of the
“Body of Christ.” Eph. 4:12. Christ’s
Heavenly Kingdom (
2Tim. 4:18) is
NOT of this world and NOT even of this realm. John 18:36. Those trying to push a Christ’s Temporary 1000 Year Earthly Kingdom are selling
MYTHS.
Come now! A Dispensational Amillennialist?!? I don't think those words work in the same sentence.
I believe Tractor's theology is a modified version of Mid-Acts (Pauline) Dispensationalism
Our mystery
“His Body” Church (
Col. 1:24) began with Paul on the Road to Damascus in
Acts 9:15-16 no matter what Ultra-Dispys like
C.R. Stam believe. The fact that some Dispys have some things right in NO WAY tosses me into their tiny little faction/sect, when the same people are DEAD WRONG about a myriad of other things contained in their broken theologies.
Where does Jesus say that a "church" did not exist in the Old Testament? First off, the church is a community of all believers for ALL TIME.
See what I mean? :0) Professing Dispy’s oftentimes make ridiculous statements like the one above, as if Christ’s
“My Church” (Kingdom “Bride” =
Church #1 here) could possibly have a beginning before John the Baptist (
Matt. 11:13-14). OT Prophecy says that the Lord God (Christ) will send
“My messenger” (
Mal. 3:1) to
“Clear the way for the Lord in the wilderness” (
Isa. 40:3), when the Lord is predicted to begin
betrothing Israel to Himself (
Hosea 2:19-20). A church is a
‘called out assembly’ (
ekklesia #1577), but the Old Testament Hebrew/Aramaic has NO TERM translated into ‘church’ even once. The folly of your assertion above is seen by your use of the term
‘believers,’ as if any OT Bible Term is translated into ‘Gospel’ even once
for anyone to actually ‘believe.’
Just how many times do we see the term
“believer” used in the entire Old Testament (NASB)? The answer is also ZERO, because the concepts of anyone (Jew or Gentile)
obtaining eternal life ‘and’ a
heavenly citizenship ‘and’
immortality by
obeying a ‘good news message’ is nonexistent in the Hebrew/Judaic mindset. Peter’s
Prophetic (seen)
Kingdom (fulfilling
Ex. 19:5-6)
Bride (
John 3:29) is
“MY CHURCH/Assembly” (Matt. 16:18 = Church #1) gathered through the preaching and obedience to the
“Gospel of the Kingdom” (
Matt. 4:23, 9:35, etc.) characterized as
Gospel #1 here. Period! Those among you mixing Kingdom Doctrine and Grace Doctrine together are tearing down the
‘First Veil’ of God’s Living Word (
pic), but those among you trying to merge Israel of the flesh (OT) with
these ‘two’ NT churches are tearing down the
“Second Veil” in direct defiance of
‘the truth’ of
God’s Living Word.
Let me start first with a question. Who did Christ die for?
Stop being silly! Jesus Christ Himself is preaching the
“Gospel of God” in
Mark 1:14-15, but who has Christ died for in Mark 1? The answer is
NOBODY. John the Baptist, Christ and the Twelve are all preaching the
“Gospel of the Kingdom” to Israel ONLY (
Matt. 15:24, 10:5-7, Acts 2:14, 22, 36), which Israel will eventually REJECT to bring about
their ‘transgression’ (
Rom. 11:11) by stumbling over Christ (
Rom. 9:30-32). Your
‘starting off’ ignores
‘the truth’ that Jesus Christ Himself is preaching the
“Gospel of the Kingdom” (Matt. 4:23, 9:35) that includes the precepts and WORKS of repentance, confession of sins and water baptism by a human being for the
‘forgiveness of sins’ (
Mark 1:4-5, Acts 2:38).
Did he die only for those who were saved after his death?
If you are unsure, then by all means continue asking questions of everybody else. Christ is the end of the Law for righteousness
to everyone WHO BELIEVES.
Romans 10:4, 1:16-17.
Did he die only for those beginning in Acts 2?
Everyone called to God at Pentecost (Acts 2) is obeying the
“Gospel of the Kingdom” to become disciples of
Peter’s Prophetic Kingdom “Bride” (Church #1). Paul will be raised up to receive
‘our gospel’ (#2) through a
‘revelation of Jesus Christ’ (
Gal. 1:11-12) for the forming of the
“Body of Christ” (Eph. 4:12) on the Road to Damascus in Acts 9.
Christ shed his blood for all believers... those in the OT and NT.
While Christ made
the ‘provision’ for the resurrection of EVERYONE at Calvary, any ‘believers’ in our gospel (#2) are
baptized into Christ (
Gal. 3:27) to be
“crucified with Christ” (
Gal. 2:20) to be
raised up with Christ (
Col. 3:1-4) to be
seated IN the heavenly places that are IN Christ Jesus (
Eph. 2:6) having NOTHING to do with any
OT saints and the disciples of
Peter’s Prophetic Kingdom “Bride” (Church #1). Israel of the flesh belongs to a
‘dispensation’ (
Vine's) taken from the Gentiles ‘and’ Peter’s Kingdom “Bride” is
a completely different ‘dispensation’ taken from Israel of the flesh that includes Gentiles (like Cornelius’ family in Acts 10). Our mystery Body of Christ (Church #2) is
yet another completely different ‘dispensation’ saved by God’s grace through faith apart from works (Eph. 2:8-10) already seated in the heavenly places that are IN Christ Jesus. Eph. 2:6 again. TheScottsMen is not authorized to include EVERYONE into the
“Dispensation of God’s Grace” (Eph. 3:2), as if anyone in the OT, or in the Four Gospels, had the opportunity to
hear (Rom. 10:17) and
believe (Eph. 1:13-14) Paul’s
“Word of the Cross” (1Cor. 1:18) gospel message.
Otherwise, on the faithful day of His return, do not expect to see Moses, Enoch, Job, or any other faithful believer found in the OT.
This is NONSENSE. Moses is just one
‘skin’ (
Gen. 3:21) for your mother Eve like Noah, Sarah and Bathsheba, which is the reason that he/she appears at Christ’s side on the
Mount of Transfiguration (
Fig in blue) in
Matthew 17:1-8. Elijah is just one
‘skin’ (
2Kings 1:8) like John the Baptist (
Mark 1:6) for your father Adam like Joshua, Abraham, David and the coming
“prophet” from
Acts 3:22-23. These are the
two olive trees/lampstands standing before the Lord of the earth (
Zech. 4:14,
Rev. 11:4) that the Lord God (Christ) formed using His own two hands in the Garden
“IN” whom everyone here DIED (
1Cor. 15:22). Enoch was taken back to
God’s Infinite Realm (
Fig 1 = far left) where he has already
“walked with God; and he was not, for God took him” (
Gen. 5:24), so he is a poor example to include in your list of OT saints above. Job will be raised on the
‘last day’ (
John 6:39-40) to receive
his 'allotted portion/spoil' (see
Dan. 12:11-13, Zech. 14:1) and a place in
David’s ‘forever’ kingdom (
Eze. 37:24-28, Jer. 30:9) in the
“New Earth” of
Revelation 21:1+ (
pic = lower left). If you really want to point out a
‘believer’ in any
‘gospel’ in the Old Testament (nothing like that exists), then perhaps your theory will obtain an ounce of merit . . .
I think you would agree that Christ died for not only those after His death, but also before.
What men agree about has little to do with anything. The question is about what
‘you’ can prove (2Tim. 2:15) using support from God’s Living Word. 2Tim. 3:16-17.
I think you would agree (I know Mid-Acts Dispensationalist will not) that Paul believed the same thing.
Add true members of
“Christ’s Body” (
1Cor. 12:27 = Church #2) to your list of people unwilling to fall for your ridiculous hypothesis . . . :0)
[Continued]
Link to Part 2 :0)