Originally posted by edpobre
Do you REALLY believe this? Ed
INC and The Issue of the Deity of Christ.
By Chris Anna
Ok. If you have read the previous sections, then you have seen how the INC claims
to be the only true church and that they fulfill Bible prophecy. But there is an issue
that is even more important than those are when determining if an organization is a
true church or a cult. This is concerning the very Deity of Christ, the fact that Christ
is actually God in the flesh. He is not a lower god, or an angel, or a special, sinless
man only, but God Himself, the Son. In Philippians chapter 2, Paul writes, ?Have
this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus, who, although He existed
in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, but
emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness
of men. And being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming
obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross.? (Philippians 2:5-8, emphasis
added) Christ is God. This is a plain fact. He humbled Himself as a human being!
But He was not a human being only. He is God.
So, does the INC preach a different Jesus than the one that the Apostles taught?
Let?s find out.
?The Iglesia Ni Cristo believes that the Lord Jesus Christ, the Son
of God (Mt. 3:17), is the one and only Savior given by God (Acts
13:23). Christ is the sole mediator between God and man (I Tim. 2:5)
and the only way to God (Jn 14:6).
But we do not subscribe to the belief that Christ is a God-man. He
is man according to His own testimony (Jn. 8:40) and the teachings of
His Apostles I Tim. 2:5; Mt. 1: 18).? (1)
?He had in so many instances introduced Himself as the Son of God
but never did He appropriate the Title ?God? or ?God the Son? for
Himself because he is not God but a man.? (2)
There it is in a nutshell. The INC does not believe that Jesus Christ is God, from
their own words! Lets look at these quotes a little more closely. First, I included
some of their other beliefs about Christ to show that seem to be right, up to the point
about Christ?s deity. They believe He is Lord, Savior, mediator, and the only way to
God. Many people who are evangelized by the INC may believe that it must be a
true Christian Church because of these truths they teach about Christ. Could this be
part of the reason why so many INC members are ex-Protestants? This is very likely
the case, since so many Protestant Christians do not really study their own Bibles,
and can be easily fooled when the truth is mixed with a lie! Beware! And study the
Bible for yourself, earnestly and prayerfully, so that you may know the truth!
The INC does not believe that Christ is a ?God-man?. But, as I have shown above
in Philippians 2:5-8, Jesus is both God and man. The INC article that I quoted uses
John 8:40 as one proof that Christ is just a man and not God. John 8:40 says, ?But
as it is, you are seeking to kill Me, a man who told you the truth, which I heard from
God; this Abraham did not do.? I do not see how this verse can prove that Jesus is a
man only, and not also God. Of course, it does show that Jesus is a man. Who
would deny that Jesus is a man here? But at the same time, this verse does not
exclude Jesus from being God also. He is speaking as a man to other men on their
level. So from this perspective, He called God ?God?, and mentioned that He heard
the truth from God. He was obedient to God the Father while on earth, even to death
as in Philippians 2:8. He humbled Himself (and what a humbling it truly was!) and
took on the likeness of a man, as in Philippians 2:7 and as such He communicated to
the Father by prayer etc. But Philippians 2:6 shows clearly that He existed in the
form of God! So, in correct order, He was God, then became a man, and now in
John 8:40 He is speaking to other men from His humbled human position on their
level, and this is what the other men see. These men, Jews, could only see His
humanity.
Jesus Called Himself a man. Let?s go a little further and see that He also calls
Himself God in the same chapter while He is speaking to the same Jews!
??Your Father Abraham rejoiced to see my day and He saw it and was
glad.? The Jews therefore said to Him, ?you are not yet fifty years
old, and have you seen Abraham?? Jesus said to them, ?Truly, truly, I
say to you, before Abraham was born, I am.? Therefore they picked
up stones to throw at Him; but Jesus hid Himself, and went out of the
temple.(John 8:56-59) ?
If Jesus was a mere man and not God, then His words would not be true here. Since
Abraham actually saw Christ?s day, according to Christ, then Christ must have been
around even before He was born as a human being! This is why the Jews brought up
Jesus? age. Abraham lived many many generations before Christ was born, so from
the perspective of these unbelieving Jews, it is impossible for Abraham and Jesus to
have seen each other, since Jesus is not even fifty years old. Also, when Jesus said
?before Abraham was, I am,? He was calling Himself by the same name that God
the Father used when talking to Moses at the burning bush in Exodus chapter 3. This
may not be clear to us in this generation, but these Jews knew exactly what Jesus
meant, because they knew the Old Testament scriptures thoroughly. They knew that
he was actually calling Himself God, which would be a great blasphemy if Jesus was
only a man. The punishment for blasphemy in Jewish Law is stoning as in
Deuteronomy 16:24. For this reason, since they did not believe His words that He
spoke, but rather believed that He was blaspheming, they picked up stones to stone
Him! They knew that He was claiming to be God. Seeing this, we must also
recognize that Jesus here claims to be God.
Who can be equal with God? No one except God. Yet Jesus claimed equality with
God by calling God His own Father. Here it is in John 5:17,18: ?But He answered
them, ?My Father is working until Now, and I Myself am working.? For this cause
therefore the Jews were seeking all the more to kill Him, because He not only was
breaking the Sabbath, but also was calling God His own Father, making Himself
equal with God.? Once again, the Jews recognized the fact the Jesus claimed to be
God. Yes, Jesus claimed to be God! No one can be equal to God, unless He is God!
When the INC points out that Jesus said He was a man, they are correct. However,
they refuse to see what the Jews recognized, which was the fact that Jesus claimed to
be God, also. So Jesus really is both God and Man. Paul reinforces this fact in the
verses from Philippians 2, mentioned above.
Another point I need to make with regards to the two passages I shared from John is
the fact that INC believes that Jesus did not sin. ?However, Christ as distinct from
all men, is the only one who did not sin (I Pt. 2:21-22; Heb. 4:15).? (3) It is true
that Jesus did not sin! And since He did not sin, He would not lie would He? So,
when He claimed to be God, as the Jews knew He was doing, then was He lying?
Absolutely Not!
(Another point: When talking to an INC member that I know, the claim is made that
Scriptures such as John 8:58, above, are not clear, but the verses where Jesus says
He is a man are clear. Therefore we should just believe the clear verses. This may
not necessarily be the belief of all INC, but I wanted to mention it here.)
More on the Deity of Christ
Look at John 1:1. ?In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.?
Here we have the Word, and it is established that the Word was in the beginning, the Word was with
God, and that the Word also was God. The next verse adds another important detail: ?He was in the
Beginning with God.? (Jn 1:2 Emphasis added) Now, the Word here is not just an object or
something spoken, but it is established that the Word is a person, that is ?He?. Verse 3 says, ?All things
came into being by Him, and apart from Him nothing came into being that has come into being.?
Following the flow of the text, we see in context that this is still talking about ?the Word?, when it says ?by
Him? and ?from Him?; the word ?Him? still referring to ?the Word.? If we say that ?Him? in
verse 3 is talking about God, then verse 2 would have to say, ?God was with God in the beginning.?
And verse 1 would say, ?In the beginning was God, and God was with God , and God was God.? So
we see that these verses are really not talking about just one person, God the Father, but a second
person, who is called God in verse 1, He is with God in verse 1 & 2, and everything was created by
Him in verse 3. In verses 4 and 5 you can see that this second person was also the light of men and
darkness did not comprehend it.
Next we have some verses concerning John the Baptist, whom the Scriptures say clearly was not the light,
but was a witness to the light. This
is important to note since we cannot confuse John the Baptist as being the ?He? and ?Him? of verse 2
and 3 above.
Now, returning to the Word Himself, the Scriptures declare, ?And the Word became flesh, and dwelt
among us, and we beheld His glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father,
full of grace and truth.?(Jn 1:14) Now, if the Word refers to God in verses 1-3 (and we see that it
does), then God here becomes flesh and dwells among human beings! And we have seen above that
in verses 1-3 the ?Word? is not God the Father, but a second person, who is also called God. So, who
is this second person?
Lets begin this discovery of that second person with Jn 1:15. After it is shown that the Word became flesh,
we see, ?John [the Baptist] bore witness of Him [the Word], and cried out, saying ?This was He of
whom I said, ?He who comes after me Has a higher rank than I, for He existed before me.??? Now
read verses 26 ? 30. ?John answered them saying, ?I baptize in water, but among you stands One
whom you do not know. It is He who comes after me, the thong of whose sandal I am not worthy to
untie.? These things took place in Bethany beyond the Jordan, where john was baptizing. The next
day He saw Jesus coming to Him, and said, ?Behold, the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the
world! This is He on behalf of whom I said, ?After me comes a man who has a higher rank than I,
for He existed before me.??(emphasis added) So, here is the obvious connection: The Word is the
one Whom John the Baptist bore witness of in verse 15, saying this was He who existed before him,
and then when he sees Jesus Christ, he affirms certainly, that Jesus is the one whom He was speaking
about! Therefore, It is Jesus who is the Word In John Chapter 1 and therefore, It is Jesus who is the
second person who is called God in verse 1!
Cont'd