why was Jesus baptised?

Personally I believe it was to give WATER baptism His endorsement.
Some try to say that once Spirit baptism occurred, that water baptism was no longer and issue, but that isnt the case (is it SE?)

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Water Baptism...just do it
By Wm Tipton

Instead of discussing whether water baptism 'saves' a person...an issue we personally believe is conditional seeing that some folks repent of their sins yet are unable for whatever reason to be baptised...Id like to discuss whether water baptism was practiced AFTER Jesus had ascended and after Pentecost and the coming of the Holy Spirit.

Some seem to think that after a time that water baptism was removed from our faith or something, but I personally do not believe that is the case.

The day of Pentecost and the coming of the Holy Spirit is recorded in Acts 2, as we well know, so do we see any water baptisms going on after this baptism of 'fire' spoken of in Gods word?

6 entire chapters later we have a very clear baptism in water being practiced still. If Spirit baptism is all that is *required* or expected at this point, then why is this even occurring? (of course we expect some to come up with illogical reasoning's and excuses, but read it for yourself and take no ones word for anything. Does it make sense to YOU that this water baptism is taking place *IF* it is no longer of any issue? )
Quote:

Act 8:36-39
And as they went on their way, they came unto a certain water: and the eunuch said, See, here is water; what doth hinder me to be baptized? (37) And Philip said, If thou believest with all thine heart, thou mayest. And he answered and said, I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God. (38) And he commanded the chariot to stand still: and they went down both into the water, both Philip and the eunuch; and he baptized him
And when they were come up out of the water, the Spirit of the Lord caught away Philip, that the eunuch saw him no more: and he went on his way rejoicing.
.


This next passage is quite clear. These HAD already recieved the Holy Spirit and yet WERE going to be baptized in WATER as well.


Act 10:44-48 While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on all them which heard the word. (45) And they of the circumcision which believed were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because that on the Gentiles also was poured out the gift of the Holy Ghost. (46)
For they heard them speak with tongues, and magnify God.
Then answered Peter, (47) Can any man forbid water, that these should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Ghost as well as we? (48) And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of the Lord. Then prayed they him to tarry certain days.


Now, dear reader, is there any doubt in your mind about what is clearly shown there?
These who HAD already received the Holy Spirit were commanded to be baptized in water. we know its water since they had ALREADY received the Holy Spirit.

These who argue against water baptism do so with their own personal agendas.
Do not let these who teach falsely rob you of the blessing of water baptism...

Jesus Himself answered this question. How we understand His response is another matter:

Then Jesus came from Galilee to the Jordan to be baptized by John. But John tried to deter him, saying, "I need to be baptized by you, and do you come to me?"
Jesus replied, "Let it be so now; it is proper for us to do this to fulfill all righteousness." Then John consented.

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Certainly John saw the problem with Jesus being baptized, and yet Jesus' response seemed to make sense to him, after which he "consented". The question is what exactly does "fulfill all righteousness" mean?

Well, in part it probably is to demonstrate humility and give us an example to follow. But Paul may give us a partial explanation too when he says:

"God made him who had no sin to be sin for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God." (2 Corinthians 5:21)

Though Jesus Himself "had no sin", he bore the sins for us all. Thus, since He was in a sense carrying those sins, it was "righteous" that he be baptized as part of His life and death and resurrection as payment for those sins.

Or something like that. It's late and I'm tired so that may not make sense

emmzee said:

Jesus Himself answered this question. How we understand His response is another matter:



Certainly John saw the problem with Jesus being baptized, and yet Jesus' response seemed to make sense to him, after which he "consented". The question is what exactly does "fulfill all righteousness" mean?

Well, in part it probably is to demonstrate humility and give us an example to follow. But Paul may give us a partial explanation too when he says:

"God made him who had no sin to be sin for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God." (2 Corinthians 5:21)

Though Jesus Himself "had no sin", he bore the sins for us all. Thus, since He was in a sense carrying those sins, it was "righteous" that he be baptized as part of His life and death and resurrection as payment for those sins.

Or something like that. It's late and I'm tired so that may not make sense

Click to expand...

Actually, that is an idea that is well worth doing some research on

because hes cool

because hes cool

Matthew 3:13-15
Then Jesus came from Galilee to the Jordan to be baptized by John. But John tried to deter him, saying, "I need to be baptized by you, and do you come to me?" Jesus replied, "Let it be so now; it is proper for us to do this to fulfill all righteousness." Then John consented.

It's pretty vague, but Jesus explains that he has to be baptized to fulfill all righteousness. He was baptized because he had to be baptized.
As for WHY he had to be baptized, I don't know. My best guess would be that his secondary purpose was to be an example to humanity of how to live one's life, and baptism is an important part of one's life.

Jesus is the "firstborn of many brethren", and, " the firstborn from the dead". This is the spiritual rebirth.

John 3:5
Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.

Jesus the son of God didn't need to be baptised, but Jesus the son of man did.

As soon as he came up out of the water the holy spirit descended on him like a dove. Jesus the son of God had the full measure of the spirit. After baptism Jesus the son of man also had it. The alter ego of Jesus's humanity had to not only set the example, but fulfill this new covenant ordinance/ritual.

oldwiseguy said:

Jesus is the "firstborn of many brethren", and, " the firstborn from the dead". This is the spiritual rebirth.

John 3:5
Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.

Jesus the son of God didn't need to be baptised, but Jesus the son of man did.

As soon as he came up out of the water the holy spirit descended on him like a dove. Jesus the son of God had the full measure of the spirit. After baptism Jesus the son of man also had it. The alter ego of Jesus's humanity had to not only set the example, but fulfill this new covenant ordinance/ritual.

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Good answer.

Jesus was baptised so that the Messiah might be revealed to Israel (John 1:31). John recognized the Messiah because the Holy Spirit came down like a dove and remained on Him. He was and is a powerful witness to the messiahship of Jesus as the Son of God.

As a little cultural background, many Jewish groups believed that the Spirit's work ceased when the last of the Old Testament prophets (Haggai, Zechariah and Malachi) died. For many of John's hearers, a claim that the Spirit is being restored (John 1:32-33) would be a claim that the messianic era is at hand.

Perhaps there was the submission to the Father's will being displayed here, but I don't think that it is the main issue, and He certainly had no sinful nature to be "dead to" and He was always "alive to God".

Another thought. The baptism of John was the 'baptism of repentance' only, a ritual 'washing'. The baptism of Jesus represented the resurrection to eternal life, thus it "fulfilled all righteousness." This was a profound change in the meaning of baptism. .

I think Jesus was baptised for many reasons.
One of the reasons, imo, was because it
was a Jewish custom for priests to first be 'washed'
a sort of purification.
(He is now our High Priest)

It obviously wasnt because He was in need of repentance
right?

oldwiseguy said:

Jesus is the "firstborn of many brethren", and, " the firstborn from the dead". This is the spiritual rebirth.

John 3:5
Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.

Jesus the son of God didn't need to be baptised, but Jesus the son of man did.

Click to expand...

I like to think Jesus is talking about the living water. Jesus said to the woman of the well that whoever drinks living water will never thirst again. This can be connected with being "born of water and of the spirit" in the sense that baptism is the water that... Wait a minute, this has nothing to do with why Jesus needed to be baptized. I just made a fool of myself. Good day.

I go along with the suggestion that by accepting a baptism of repentance Jesus was identifying himself with sinful mankind, even though he personally had not sinned. However there is also another suggestion, perhaps a secondary reason.

When a Rabbi took a student (at age 30) as his disciple the Rabbi supervised the student taking a ritual bath (a mikvar) in his name. Thus you became cleansed from your old life (born again) with your Rabbi as your spiritual father, and you were to believe and observe everything he taught you, and obey his commands.

So the Father was supervising Jesus’ mikvah and from then on Jesus was no longer under obedience to his earthly parents under his Father in heaven, and so we read “Jesus said to them, “Very truly, I tell you, the Son can do nothing on his own, but only what he sees the Father doing; for whatever the Father£ does, the Son does likewise. (John 5:19)

Jesus was baptised by John for a couple of reasons one of which besides those already mentioned being simply to confirm to the believers that it was the baptism of John that He/The Father consented to; seeing that there were obviously others baptizing during that time period, hence the scriptures distinction, "The Baptism of John."

Baptizm i.e., Ritual baths were/are common place in Judaism. The book of Leviticus covers "Laws concerning diverse washings."

Lots of good responses, especially the immediately preceding one. But here's a thought.

John's baptism was said by the Apostle Paul to be a baptism unto repentance. But as is so often the case with what God says and does, a second purpose which is later understood takes place.

For example, when Jesus washed the feet of his disciples, to them and to most it was only the ceremonial hygienic task performed before a meal (especially a holiday feast). But in keeping with the prophetic idiom that the foot (feet)* are symbolic of human existence, Jesus was actually baptizing his disciples prophetically.

Genesis 3:15 And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel.

Proverbs 6:18 An heart that deviseth wicked imaginations, feet that be swift in running to mischief,

Proverbs 3:26 For the LORD shall be thy confidence, and shall keep thy foot from being taken.

Jesus was setting the precedent for water baptism being the physical act of prophetic identification with the spiritual event of death, burial, and resurrection. It is the physical representation of the spiritual transformation.

I like the point about mikvah Winsome made, but if that were true then Jesus would be submitting to John as his master / rabbi and clearly this was not the case.

Note the similarity in Jesus' responses:

Matthew 3:13 Then cometh Jesus from Galilee to Jordan unto John, to be baptized of him. 14 But John forbad him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me? 15 And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him.

John 13:5 After that he poureth water into a bason, and began to wash the disciples’ feet, and to wipe them with the towel wherewith he was girded. 6 Then cometh he to Simon Peter: and Peter saith unto him, Lord, dost thou wash my feet? 7 Jesus answered and said unto him, What I do thou knowest not now; but thou shalt know hereafter.

There was something more significant going on in both cases than was readily understood at the time.

johnd said:

Lots of good responses, especially the immediately preceding one. But here's a thought.

John's baptism was said by the Apostle Paul to be a baptism unto repentance. But as is so often the case with what God says and does, a second purpose which is later understood takes place.

For example, when Jesus washed the feet of his disciples, to them and to most it was only the ceremonial hygienic task performed before a meal (especially a holiday feast). But in keeping with the prophetic idiom that the foot (feet)* are symbolic of human existence, Jesus was actually baptizing his disciples prophetically.

Genesis 3:15 And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel.

Proverbs 6:18 An heart that deviseth wicked imaginations, feet that be swift in running to mischief,

Proverbs 3:26 For the LORD shall be thy confidence, and shall keep thy foot from being taken.

Jesus was setting the precedent for water baptism being the physical act of prophetic identification with the spiritual event of death, burial, and resurrection. It is the physical representation of the spiritual transformation.

I like the point about mikvah Winsome made, but if that were true then Jesus would be submitting to John as his master / rabbi and clearly this was not the case.

Note the similarity in Jesus' responses:

Matthew 3:13 Then cometh Jesus from Galilee to Jordan unto John, to be baptized of him. 14 But John forbad him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me? 15 And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him.

John 13:5 After that he poureth water into a bason, and began to wash the disciples’ feet, and to wipe them with the towel wherewith he was girded. 6 Then cometh he to Simon Peter: and Peter saith unto him, Lord, dost thou wash my feet? 7 Jesus answered and said unto him, What I do thou knowest not now; but thou shalt know hereafter.

There was something more significant going on in both cases than was readily understood at the time.

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I agree and I wouldn't be totally surprised if there was another layer to this but I believe that what Jesus was showing Peter what it takes to be a good leader. At the time while Christ lived and walked among them, he was the leader. After his "death" he passed this torch to Peter.

Matthew 23:11, "But he that is greatest among you shall be your servant."

izarya said:

I agree and I wouldn't be totally surprised if there was another layer to this but I believe that what Jesus was showing Peter what it takes to be a good leader. At the time while Christ lived and walked among them, he was the leader. After his "death" he passed this torch to Peter.

Matthew 23:11, "But he that is greatest among you shall be your servant."

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Good point. Until after his Ascension, Jesus' disciples were ever pressing forward to be recognized or to attain positions of leadership. Whether it was spirit-filled humility or a better grasp of what spiritual notoriety truly entails, thereafter they did not seek the mantle God placed upon them as leaders.

John 21:18 Verily, verily, I say unto thee, When thou wast young, thou girdedst thyself, and walkedst whither thou wouldest: but when thou shalt be old, thou shalt stretch forth thy hands, and another shall gird thee, and carry thee whither thou wouldest not. 19 This spake he, signifying by what death he should glorify God. And when he had spoken this, he saith unto him, Follow me.

No, a servant is not greater than his master.

He got baptized to be an example to us.

David's Sweetheart said:

He got baptized to be an example to us.

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I find that unlikely and over simplified. Christ recieved baptism at the hands of John to show his disciples and John's followers that John's doctrine was true, that he (John) was the one (Malachi 4:5) sent by God.

Water baptism is not essential to salvation. Baptism was a physical expression of faith, a ritual if you will, to express discontent with the priesthood, and renewed trust in God. But as I said, it is a ritual, just like circumcision in the law, and this New Covenant does not weigh heavily in ceremony, as did the first! Take look at Paul's teachings on the ritual of circumcision, though we are speaking here of baptism, it is still applicable, as both are physical expressions:

Romans 2:29, "But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God."

I would also like now to quote one of the early church patrons, know as Justin Martyr, who commented on the necessity (or lack thereof) of ritualistic baptism (in the Greek, the word is washing):

"And this washing is called illumination, because they who learn these things are illuminated in their understanding, and in the name of Jesus Christ, who was crucified under Pontius Pilate, and in the name of the Holy Ghost, who through the prophets foretold all things about Jesus, he who is illuminated is washed."