Are you saved if baptised?

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jmacvols

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That is not true,..



What you did was assign water baptism to that passage just because you seen the word baptism there. This talks about forgiveness of sins so it could not mean water baptism. To say it does would disagree with several sections of scripture,..

Again Col 2:12 is water baptism. Paul said there is one baptism Eph 4:5. The baptism of the great comm. was human administered water baptism that lasts till the end of the world so the church can last till the end of the world. Since water baptism is the baptism that lasts till the end of the world, Mt 28:19,20, the one baptism of Eph 4:5 and Col 2:12 must be water baptism. No verse says baptism with the Holy Spirit lasts till the world ends and no verse says baptism with the Holy spirit makes disciples.



Dave01 said:
See what happens when we attach "water" onto that section, it starts to disagree with other sections of scripture that specifically describe being born-again by The Spirit. That passage must denote Spiritual baptism to agree with the other sections of scripture, and also how we are forgiven of our sins. Throwing water in there begins to say that it forgives our sins instead of the shed blood of Jesus thereby invalidating His work on the cross.

Already hamonized 1 cor 12:13 with jn 3:5. Since there is one way to be saved and the bible does not contradict itself these two verses teach the exact same thing:


1cor 12:13----Spirit+++++++baptized>>>>>>>body
Jn 3:5--------Spirit++++++++water>>>>>>>>kingdom.

It is clearly evident that 1 Cor 12:13 is water baptism, even Paul, a human, administered water baptism to the Corinthians 1 Cor 1:14,16.
 
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Floatingaxe

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NOWHERE does it say that the baptism of the Holy Spirit ceases in this age. It is FOR the CHURCH AGE. It is FOR the building of the Church. After this age closes, there will be no reason for it.

The Holy Spirit baptism is a work of the Holy Spirit of God. HE alone administers it.
 
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RefrusRevlis

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(And Acts 1 says there were 120 not just 12)
This is wrong:
Read the passage again: the antecedent to the "they" in Acts 2 is the 11 +1 apostles:

Acts 1:26 And they cast their lots, and the lot fell on Matthias. And he was numbered with the eleven apostles. 2:1 When the Day of Pentecost had fully come, they were all with one accord in one place.

Only the apostles received the baptism of the Holy Spirit in Acts 2.
Refrus
 
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AllTalkNoAction

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This is wrong:
Read the passage again: the antecedent to the "they" in Acts 2 is the 11 +1 apostles. . .
Only the apostles received the baptism of the Holy Spirit in Acts 2.
There were 12 apostles but we have already been told:-
Ac:1:15: And in those days Peter stood up in the midst of the disciples, and said, (the number of names together were about an hundred and twenty,)

Jesus didn't want the women & the others to be treated differently, he prayed that they may all be one in him, through the infilling of his Spirit.
. . . then Acts shows people who were not apostles being baptised in the Spirit and 1 Cor. 12:13 plainly says

"For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit."

But if you want to believe that only apostles are baptised in the Spirit, you go ahead, I've warned you enough, your blood is on your own head.
 
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RevRicneck

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No, baptism doesn't equate salvation. It is an act of obedience and love and a public declaration of our relationship with Christ.

Exactly well put! Baptism is an outward proof your inward change that comes with salvation.:preach:
 
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RefrusRevlis

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So you dont believe scriputre that says we cannot please God without the SPirit of Christ in us. If we had some good in us He would not need to die on the Cross FOR US. your just cherry picking again. There are a lot of good people who will not obey God. your just avoiding rom 8:5-10. rather clear. tell me how i am seeing it wrong.

Romans 8:5-10
For those who live according to the flesh set their minds on the things of the flesh, but those who live according to the Spirit, the things of the Spirit. 6 For to be carnally minded is death, but to be spiritually minded is life and peace. 7 Because the carnal mind is enmity against God; for it is not subject to the law of God, nor indeed can be. 8 So then, those who are in the flesh cannot please God. But you are not in the flesh but in the Spirit, if indeed the Spirit of God dwells in you. Now if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he is not His. 10 And if Christ is in you, the body is dead because of sin, but the Spirit is life because of righteousness.

How do you think this passage supports your position?
The passage explains about living in the flesh v's living in the spirit. How do you live according to the spirit?

For those who live according to the flesh set their minds on the things of the flesh, but those who live according to the Spirit, the things of the Spirit.

The Bible is quite clear you set your mind on the things of the spirit. Remember Jesus' words are "spirit and life" Jn 6:63. When we walk according to his word, his spirit dwells in us. However, you avoided the issue of Luke 8 describing a "good and honest heart" - some one who receives the word with joy. This is the unsaved person who in faith, choses Jesus.

You cannot avoid Romans 10:17 - this tells us from where faith comes - Hearing the word of God. It is possible for people to do something before they are saved in order to lay hold of the free gift.

I have a thread in the Restoration Movement Section about the Indwelling of the Spirit, so I won't go into this anymore here.

Christ Dwells in us when we dwell in Christ.
refrus
 
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RefrusRevlis

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There were 12 apostles but we have already been told:-
Ac:1:15: And in those days Peter stood up in the midst of the disciples, and said, (the number of names together were about an hundred and twenty,)

Jesus didn't want the women & the others to be treated differently, he prayed that they may all be one in him, through the infilling of his Spirit.

Like I said, though not in these exact words, grammatically, the pronoun "they" refers to the antecedent (immediate previously mentioned) people (the 12 apostles).

As well as this Acts 2:7 identifies those who received the Holy Spirit as being "Galileans" - the apostles were all from Galilee - it would be a stretch to suppose all the 120 were from Galilee.
refrus
 
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RefrusRevlis

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Quote:
Originally Posted by RefrusRevlis
. . . We do not read anywhere else in the scriptures of the baptism of the Holy Spirit, apart from at Pentecost where the 12 apostles received it and the house of Cornelius.


Yes we do, John the baptist spoke of it, Jesus spoke of it and the letters speak of it - what more do you want ??
(And Acts 1 says there were 120 not just 12)


Let me clarfy what I meant: we do not read accounts of the Holy Spirit Baptism occurring elsewhere in the NT.
Refrus
 
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RefrusRevlis

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No, the problem here is your mis-understanding of what "the gifts" passage refers to. It is not about what different people get when they become christians, it's about different ministries in the church.
The context is that chap.11 Paul has been correcting the Corinthians about how the meeting should be run.

This is wrong, though the context of chapter 11 (and in particular from verse 18) relates to "when you come together as a church". Paul changes subjects and commences talking about spiritual gifts (chapters 12-14). He commences with a general discussion on spiritual gifts and in chapter 14 talks about their use in the church (particularly form verse 23). That chapter 12 is not talking specifically about the meetings is seen in the use of the word "body" numerous times - it is talking about the church as an entity (a body), not church meetings.

In 12:8-10 he says:-
" to one is given by the Spirit the word of wisdom; to another the word of knowledge by the same Spirit; To another faith . . tongues . . interpretation . ."

No-one ever suggests that only some christians have faith or knowledge, yet according to your useage of this passage this is what we have to believe,

These are miraculous gifts. The knowledge is miraculous knowledge and faith miraculous faith, not the knowledge and faith all Christians possess.

yet the letter begins by affirming that all have all inside (1:4-7) - that's why Paul has to reason with them not to all speak in tongues when they meet.

The passage does not say each member had (each) all faith and all knowledge and every gift - it's talking about the whole church in Corinth, not individuals.

refrus
 
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jmacvols

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Look read the whole thing. right at the start he asks them HOW they received the SPirit does he not. verse 2-3, they got it by BELIEIVNG what they heard, the gospel(which is about Christ and his work for them) he says BEGGINING WITH the SPirit. Repeats it in verse 5 verse 6 Abraham BELIEVED God and it was CREDITED to him as righteousness. God would justifiy the gentiles by FAITH, when did faith EVER mean to get water baptized. it doesnt EVER. it means to believe what you heard about Christ. The SEED is Christ. if you read on in verse 22 it states that the whole world is a prisoner to sin , SO that what was PROMISEDn being GIVEN THROUGH faith in Christ, might be given to those who BELIEVE. Far as i know to believe doesnt mean to get water baptized either. We were held prisoner by the Law... So that we might be justified by FAITH(not by or through water baptism). you will bring up verse 26 and being baptized INTO Christ but if you on it mentions abrhams seed and HEIRS according to the promise. Whcih in eph 1:13-14 bring it up again, again it is by BELIEF or faith. and acts 10 and 15:8 shows how the gentiles WERE given this SPirit through Christ. if it is THROUGH Christ then how could it Not be HIS BAPTISM since thatis what JTB said his would be of. also in verse 28 it speaks of neither jew nor greek slave ect ect. read 1 cor 12:13 says the same right after it states we are BAPTIZED BY ONE SPIRIT. SOUNDS like eph 4 and the ONE BAPTISM to me.

Baptism with the Holy Spirit is not mentioned in Gal chapter 3 at all, you simply imagine that it is there. When Paul used the phrases "in the Spirit' and "in the flesh", it is Paul's way of contrasting the OT (flesh) from the NT (Spirit). In v2 the phrase "hearing of faith" can alos be translated "obedience of faith" and ot alter what is said at all. THe Galatians did not "believe alone", they had obedience. Twice in this epistle Paul chided the Galatians for not "obeying the truth" 3:1; 5:7. In Acts 2:38, one has to first oby by repenting and being baptized before they can receive thd gift of the Holy Ghost. In Gal 4:6 one has to already be a Son before they can receive this gift of the Holy Ghost. So one has to first becoem a Son of God by obeying (repent/being baptized) then he recieves the gift of the Holy Ghost. "belief alone" will never get one the gift of the Holy Ghost.

Eph 4:5 says ONE baptism, Paul being a human could only water baptized some of the Corinthians himself, 1 Cor 1:14,16. If 1 Cor 12:13 is baptism with the Holy Spirit, then you have created two baptism where one exists...so your worng here. Again Jn 3:5 and 1 Cor 12:13 teach the same thing, they both teach that it takes the Spirit + water baptism to put one in the kingdom/body. THe bible is its own best commentary and does not contrsdict itself. It is very plain and evident that 1 Cor 12:13 references water baptism.




schroeder said:
SO what they were already saved according to PETER in acts 15:8. "if for no other reason" is silly, notice PETER never brings up this water baptism ever when he recalls it. YOUR kidding that acts 15:8 says he was not saved. SO one can be ACCEPTED by God and receive the SPirit and not be saved. not according to Christ when he spoke in mark 16:16 beleve and be baptised(his baptism) What does he say he purified their hearts BY FAITH. show me where faith includes water baptism.(in light of rom 8:5-10) read verse 11 it says right there they were saved. doesnt say they were saved just BECAUSE they got water baptized BUT it seems you dont have a problem saying they WERE NOT untill after they were water baptized. EVEN though it is MUCH MORE CLEAR they were without it.

Acts 15:8 does not say Cornelius was already saved, you are saying that. If you would read the context of the story in Acts 10 and 11, you will see that the way Cornlieus would be saved would be by words (gospel) Peter would speak to him. Nothing in the context says Cornelius would be saved by being baptized with the Holy Ghost. THis coupled with the fact no verse say baptis of the Holy Ghost remits sins, we have the following:

If Cornelius was "saved" when the Holy Ghost fell upon him,as you wrongly assume, then he was somehow "saved" *BEFORE* he heard the saving words, the gospel from Peter, *BEFORE* he did what he ought/necessary 10:6, *BEFORE* he worked righteousness and accepted with God 10:35, *BEFORE* his sins were remitted in water baptism, because baptism with the Holy Ghost does not remit sins. You have created an impossible situation for Cornelius to be "saved" in.



schroeder said:
AGAIN you DO NOT use the same meesage from the OTHER gospels which do NOT go with this thinking. look at marks version " he will baptize "YOU":with the holy SPirit", it says the WHOLE countryside and ALL the people went to see him.. and this was his message. Luke 3:15-18 It says JOHN ANSWERED them ALL. and we know who ALL were from mark account. Jn. Which says it was the next day, he said jesus would baptize with the SPirit. SO yes Christ would and does and will baptize wiht the Holy SPirit. scriptures tells us we receive the SPirit when we believe that we are saved by faith THROUGH Christ. how through if not of his baptism. which is way he said believe and be baptized.


There is one gospel with four accounts. The gospel accounts do not contradict themselves, Matthews account is as true as the others. Mt 3:7 plain shows there were Pharisees in John's audience and Pharisees rejected John's baptism, Lk 7:30. So in Mt 3:11 when John tells his audience "I baptize you with water", this pronoun "you" did not include those Pharisees. So the pronoun "you" in this verse is being used in a nonpersonal sense. John simply announced the promise of the baptism with the HOly Ghost, he promised no one in his audience they would receive this baptism. IF the YOU is universsal as you wronly claim, then not only would everyone be baptized with the HOly Spirit, but everyone will be lost (baptized with fire) for John said Jesus would baptize with the Holy Spirit AND fire. Your problem is the "YOU" does not equal "ALL"



schroeder said:
but doesnt scripture say in the old testement that his WORD is a fire. also 1 cor 3:10-15 speaks of our works and it will be reveal with fire and test it. So your idea FALLS APART if one JUST simple looks through scripture to have it EXPLAIN itself. FIre doesnt just mean hell as baptism doesnt just mean water baptism.

If you would look at the immediate context in Mt 3:10-12, the word "fire" is being used to talk about what happens to the lost. Your going all the way back to the OT to find the word fire being used figuratively, then trying apply that remote meaning to the immediate context shows your exegesis is lacking.
 
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jmacvols

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you have yet to show how water baptism last untill the end times. agian one receives the baptism of the spirit 1 cor 12:13. IT HAPPENS SCRIPTURE TELLS US IT DOES RIGHT THERE. scripture says we receive the SPirit when we BELEIVE. eph 1:13-14 and others. when we are united with Christ or "INTO" him it is because HIS spirit is in us or joining us. Matt. 28:20 " and teaching them to obey everything I have commanded you, AND SURELY I AM WITH YOU ALWAYS." HOW on earth do you get water baptize untill the end here. As you keep trying to use it doesnt say water baptism untill the end it says I WILL BE WITH YOU always, utill the end. Its so OBVIOUSE it clear you refuse to let your self see it. becauseit just might mean something else and DESTROY your theology. all the accounts of JTB saying i will be. all the verses that say if i believe i will receive the SPirit. 1 cor 12:13 which says i was baptised by the SPirit. the prophecy of joel. acts 2:38 which says it is the PROMISE, and if you read the REST of scripture about this promise it is the receiving of the PSirit which is through FAITH!

In Mt 28:19,20 Jesus commanded the disciples to go into all hte world and make disciple by baptizing them. -----For the church to continue till the world ends, disciples have to be made
---Disciples are made by baptizing them
---Jesus commanded His disciples, which are human, to do the baptizing. Humans can only administer water baptism.
---so the kind of baptism that makes new disciples so the church can continue until the end of the world is water baptism. Those who participate in the teaching and baptizing, the Lord said He would be with them until the end of the world.
--conclusion: water baptism makes new disciples and new discples are necessary for the church to continue until Christ returns again. Therefore water baptiem MUST last till the end of the world, so the one baptism of Eph 4:5 must be water baptism. No verse say baptism with the Holy Ghost lasts till the end of time and no verse says baptism with the Holy Ghost makes new disciples. 1 Cor 12:13 therefore has to be water baptism, for Paul water baptized some of the Corinthains himslef, 1 Cor 1:14,16.
 
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jmacvols

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why you just ignore them. there is two baptisms scripture is clear on this. the word baptism is used in three different ways in scripture.

No, Eph 4: says ONE baptism, here you say there is two baptisms. Your having to change the bible around to try and get your theology to work.




schroeder said:
you word it incorrectly. he said GO and make disciples, which NO scripture later or before EVER says water baptizing is part of making a disciple. and ALL the other accounts leave out the whole baptism wording. it says go make disciple, COMMA...... and teach them. you make disciples by shareing the message of Christ, they believe and become a disciple THEN you can teach, because scripture says wiothout the SPirit in you you cant understand his ways or teachings ect. So they cant be taught commands of God in there sinfull nature which they have UNTILL they have the SPirit in them, which you say is only gotten when they OBEY Gods commands. SEE the problem. HUMANS cant SAVE anyone have NO part in salvation other wise the Law would have been just fine. we are saved in our sins, inour sins we CANNOT OBEY God or be OBEDIANT in water baptism.

--Man does not have a sinful nature, a false teaching of Calvin, so your ideas above fail here.

--Mt 28:19,20 --make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them. The word for "make disciples" here means to instruct/teach another, where one stands as a pupil and instructed by another. So Jesus' followers are to teach converts, baptizing them. The participle (baptizing) explains how making disciples was performed. So one becomes a Christian-disciple by being baptized.




schroeder said:
the gentiles is not JUST the corneilus family. It was showing the jews with whom the purpose of it was for, that ALL was included in salvation and that there is no need of becoming a jew first. HOw were they to KNOW this Truth without a CLEAR sign that it was from God. You truelly have your eyes closed to what is being said. remember it was the gentiles being shown to the Jews they were also included, this is what shows the prophecy he was useing to be true, That ALL men would receiv the SPirit which saves them. Its apparent when he spoke of the prophecy they refused to believe ALL people could include the gentiles, in acts 10 they are shown that ALL people did include gentiles. SO it DID NOT FULLFIL it IT MADE IT CLEAR IT WAS TRUE, that ALL men would be included in salvation through Christ. It is still being fullfilled today and will be untill the end when Christ comes back to FULLFILL it completely, you know the REST of the prophecy.

The apostles were baptized with the Holy Spirit in Acts 2 and in Acts 2:16 Peter proves that this baptism was Joel's prophecy being fulfilled. So baptism with the Holy Spirit was nothing more than a prophecy of Joel which has been fulfilled by Christ and is obsolete. If it has not been fulfilled, then Jesus was not the Christ. You cannot have it both ways.



schroeder said:
read above you get that you will get the rest. KNOW that is not what it says, for if it did his sacrifice for sins would be a waste. hebrews is clear that the shwedding of blood is what forgives sin NOTHING else will do. Christ did this because we could not, other wise the sacrifices would have been sufficient. which is why it also says his work was a ONCE FOR ALL for our sins. rom 5 and heb. 9:20-28. UNDERSTAND there is NOTHING we can do to have our sins removed. acts 2:38 says. when you BELIEVE and accept Christ work your sins are forgiven, WHY because God will see christ in you who did the work needed. God does not look at our flesh he sees Christ, which is also why Christ says you must be baptized(his) for his unites him with you, and in doing this we are freed from death which is sins. You say Joel says who ever calls on his name will be saved. this leaves out water baptism does it not, OR do you simple just insert this because of what your theology about water bapism. If it is just calling on his name, which is belieiving in him, then it MUST be HIS baptism that saves and frees you from sin. so it does NOT harmonize the two. We are not saved through water baptism but through Christ, the only way that is possible is through his baptism.


"Doing nothing" will not remove sins. No one was told to to " do nothing and thou sins shalt be remitted."

Acts 2:38 Peter commanded them to be baptized for the remission of sins.

There is a night and day difference between what you say and the bible says.

THere is no verse that say believing on him is calling upon his name...you made that up.

Again I HARMOINIZED Acts 2:21 with Acts 2:38, they teach the same thing. There is one way to be saved and the bible does not contradict itself so they MUST teach the same thing. Your theology does nothing but create disharmony between verses.



schroeder said:
it doesnt but you seem guite good at making it contradict itself. seeing how getting water baptized is not shedding of blood, you have a problem. Seeing how it is NEVER stated as such in scripture your making it up to say it does in some way. Your say it unites us to christ which unites us to his blood but what he did was ONCE FOR ALL. what was needed to be done for our forgiveness was already DONE, if it was once for all already accomplished what need is there for water baptism to do it. NONE. again they do not say the same thing. ALL YOU do is melt them together. on there own they do not say the same thing in how you read it. one says call on his name. jesus say over and over believe on me for eternal life. NOTHING in this statement suggest water baptism SO no they do NOT say the same thing in your thinking. therefore YOU make them contradict. scripture is clear there is NOTHING we can do to freeus from sin or save ourselves. We are in sin, saved by Grace, which is in our sins. While we were still sinners GOd saved us. how is this possible if as you say we can be obediant in water baptism? SOOOO how are we saved.

You say "They do not say the same thing". So the bible contradicts itself or there is more than one way to be saved.

schroeder said:
ONE: Christ did the work needed he shed his blood. what the Law reguired Christ fullfilled forever.

Christ shed His blood for everyone, yet everyone will not be saved, so there is "something" that separates the saved from the lost, that something being obedience. Christ's shed blood does nothing for those that do nothing.

schroeder said:
TWO: God says our work is to believe on his son.Jn. 6:29 FAITH or BELIEF.

So you do see that belief/faith is a work, not just mere mental thoughts.

schroeder said:
THREE when we believe and accept what he did for us Christ comes into us, His baptism.
His baptism gives us the holy SPirit. If he is to come into us how else is he to do it. his spirit overwhlems us( the deffinition of baptism, immersion ect) His spirit gives us a rebirth(being controlled by his spirit and not our flesh rom 6) and renewal( his spirit in us making us like himself, untill the end days when we are glorified and he is with us physically again)
This is the only way GRACE can be used to save us. notice the only thing we do is believe, hince not by works( being doing something to receive something. we believe in our sin or flesh)

Maybe according to schroeder 5:18, but no verse in the bible teaches such a thing.
 
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Schroeder

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No, Eph 4: says ONE baptism, here you say there is two baptisms. Your having to change the bible around to try and get your theology to work.
HARDLY JTB speaks of christ baptizing with the Spirit. scripture speaks of a baptism with the holy spirit in 1 cor 12:13 and when the apostles were baptized. SO no i can read and not ignore passages that might in some way show something against what i may believe. the onl;y one that counts is the one that saves. your just being a bit top litterale.






--Man does not have a sinful nature, a false teaching of Calvin, so your ideas above fail here.
seeing how i am not a calvanist, dont see your point. BUT scripture is clear that one is in there sinful nature. Rom 8 talks about it as does others. If we did not have a sinful nature God would not have to work through GRACE or send his son to do what we OBVIOUSELY couldnt EVER do. If we could have a part any part at all then WHY didnt he just stick with the sacrifiices. you just merely blow off what i say because AGAIN it would damage your theology.

--Mt 28:19,20 --make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them. The word for "make disciples" here means to instruct/teach another, where one stands as a pupil and instructed by another. So Jesus' followers are to teach converts, baptizing them. The participle (baptizing) explains how making disciples was performed. So one becomes a Christian-disciple by being baptized.
There is no scripture anywhere that says or proves this idea correct. you say scripture shows you right show me ANYWHERE else this idea is true. NO place in scripture talks about making disciples BY water by water baptizing.






The apostles were baptized with the Holy Spirit in Acts 2 and in Acts 2:16 Peter proves that this baptism was Joel's prophecy being fulfilled. So baptism with the Holy Spirit was nothing more than a prophecy of Joel which has been fulfilled by Christ and is obsolete. If it has not been fulfilled, then Jesus was not the Christ. You cannot have it both ways.
how is it fulfilled you dont even ADD the rest of the prophecy, the whole part about the seeing visions the miracles in the sky sun turning to dark moon turned red ect. SOOO it is abviouse it was NOT fulfilled. OR are you gooingt o show me where all this other stuff in the prophecy was fulfilled in the two places you say it was. ITs a two fold prophecy it is NOT fulfilled it is BEING fulfilled still.





"Doing nothing" will not remove sins. No one was told to to " do nothing and thou sins shalt be remitted."

Acts 2:38 Peter commanded them to be baptized for the remission of sins.

There is a night and day difference between what you say and the bible says.

THere is no verse that say believing on him is calling upon his name...you made that up.
I dont say doing nothing. one must believe, which according to scripture means believe and ACCEPT him into your heart. seeig how God sees the heart of man and knows if you do or not. acts 15:8 shows us this. AGAIN WE do not do anything we cant, YOU DO RECALL WE DID ONCE AND GOD SAID HE DIDNT LIKE IT, THE SACRIFICES, You speak of eigogenisis w hat of those who say that passages reads better as IN LIGHT OF the forgiveness of sins. NEVER mind ALL the other passages that say belief forgives sins acts 10:43 and others. You merely take the one place it seems to say it like you think and make ALL the other say. And ignore the scripture that says ONLY blood forgives sin. again tell me how water baptism is blood.

Again I HARMOINIZED Acts 2:21 with Acts 2:38, they teach the same thing. There is one way to be saved and the bible does not contradict itself so they MUST teach the same thing. Your theology does nothing but create disharmony between verses.
NO it doesnt contradict. YOU MAKE CONTRADICT. disharmony. like saying BELIEVE on me for eternal life, and be water baptised for eternal life or all who have faith in Jesus will have the sins forgiven, or be water baptised and your sins will be forgiven. How did you receive the Spirit in BELIEF no PAUL in water baptism. Or so by FAITH we will be GIVEN the holy SPirit. NO paul you are wrong it is in water baptism we are given the Spirit. WERE does it say Faith is getting water baptised NO WHERE. Rom 10:8-10 shows us WHAT FAITH is. There are SOOO many others but these show well your the one making it all contradict. the only way it wont for you is to ignore them or add to them.





You say "They do not say the same thing". So the bible contradicts itself or there is more than one way to be saved.



Christ shed His blood for everyone, yet everyone will not be saved, so there is "something" that separates the saved from the lost, that something being obedience. Christ's shed blood does nothing for those that do nothing.
as above. NO everyone who does not believe is condemed already. SEEING how you dont accept that we cold never do anything to have our sins removed or total depravity. which is in rom 8 and others. our fleshful nature is the same as sinfull nature. WHY wont you deal with rom 8. it rather clear we cant please GOd without christ in us. If we could be OBEDIANT in our flesh there would be no need of Christ dieing on the cross.



So you do see that belief/faith is a work, not just mere mental thoughts.



Maybe according to schroeder 5:18, but no verse in the bible teaches such a thing.
YOUR JUST ignoring the passage. every passage about it shows it does not include water baptism acts 15:8 shows it is what is in our hearts as does rom 10:8-10. ITS THERE stop ignoring it. IT does you just dont like to see it.
 
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Schroeder

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In Mt 28:19,20 Jesus commanded the disciples to go into all hte world and make disciple by baptizing them. -----For the church to continue till the world ends, disciples have to be made
---Disciples are made by baptizing them
---Jesus commanded His disciples, which are human, to do the baptizing. Humans can only administer water baptism.
---so the kind of baptism that makes new disciples so the church can continue until the end of the world is water baptism. Those who participate in the teaching and baptizing, the Lord said He would be with them until the end of the world.
--conclusion: water baptism makes new disciples and new discples are necessary for the church to continue until Christ returns again. Therefore water baptiem MUST last till the end of the world, so the one baptism of Eph 4:5 must be water baptism. No verse say baptism with the Holy Ghost lasts till the end of time and no verse says baptism with the Holy Ghost makes new disciples. 1 Cor 12:13 therefore has to be water baptism, for Paul water baptized some of the Corinthains himslef, 1 Cor 1:14,16.
notice NO other passages to back up this claim. only you ignoring ones and making them say what they CLEARLY CLEARLY dont say. AND AGAIN that verse DOES NOT say water baptism last till the end . IT SAY A LO I WILL BE WITH YOU ALWAYS, UNTILL THE END. the whole untill the end was ENPHESISING him saying ALWAYS. And water baptism was SOOOOO important Paul said he was glad he only baptized a few. SURE. and 1 cor 12:13 is RATHER OBVIOUSLY CLEAR. we were ALL baptised by the ONE Spirit into the ONE body. sounds like eph 4. not that that counts for you.
 
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Schroeder

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Baptism with the Holy Spirit is not mentioned in Gal chapter 3 at all, you simply imagine that it is there. When Paul used the phrases "in the Spirit' and "in the flesh", it is Paul's way of contrasting the OT (flesh) from the NT (Spirit). In v2 the phrase "hearing of faith" can alos be translated "obedience of faith" and ot alter what is said at all. THe Galatians did not "believe alone", they had obedience. Twice in this epistle Paul chided the Galatians for not "obeying the truth" 3:1; 5:7. In Acts 2:38, one has to first oby by repenting and being baptized before they can receive thd gift of the Holy Ghost. In Gal 4:6 one has to already be a Son before they can receive this gift of the Holy Ghost. So one has to first becoem a Son of God by obeying (repent/being baptized) then he recieves the gift of the Holy Ghost. "belief alone" will never get one the gift of the Holy Ghost.
IT DOESNT MATTER if it is baptism with the holy psirit or not the POINT is Paul says we received it in Faith or belief NOT in what you keep saying, water baptism. PLEASE show me scriputre that DEFINES Faith as being obediant. Rom 10:8-10 shows us what is meant when one as FAITH. IGNORE IT ALL YOU WISH. You simple reworded the passage and made up the deffinition for fAITH when it is already defined in rom 10.

Eph 4:5 says ONE baptism, Paul being a human could only water baptized some of the Corinthians himself, 1 Cor 1:14,16. If 1 Cor 12:13 is baptism with the Holy Spirit, then you have created two baptism where one exists...so your worng here. Again Jn 3:5 and 1 Cor 12:13 teach the same thing, they both teach that it takes the Spirit + water baptism to put one in the kingdom/body. THe bible is its own best commentary and does not contrsdict itself. It is very plain and evident that 1 Cor 12:13 references water baptism.
Humans being able to do anything is not the point only GOD saves we have NO part in it. YOu will not see 1 cor 12:13 as the SPirit EVEN though it is VERY VERY VERY VERY VERY VERY clear that is what it says, because it destroys your theology, just one of many you ignore, Your notice it says the ONE spirit into the ONE body. JN 5 has more to it then just that one verse. read verse 3 and 8 SO it is with those BORN of the SPIRIT. Christ ends it iwth JUST the ONE SPIRIT. go figure it does line up with 1 cor 12:13. at least if you dont CHERRY PICK every passage you possible can. Just that you wont explain how 1 cor 12:13 does reference water baptism. I am sure you will but it will have to way off to get it to.






Acts 15:8 does not say Cornelius was already saved, you are saying that. If you would read the context of the story in Acts 10 and 11, you will see that the way Cornlieus would be saved would be by words (gospel) Peter would speak to him. Nothing in the context says Cornelius would be saved by being baptized with the Holy Ghost. THis coupled with the fact no verse say baptis of the Holy Ghost remits sins, we have the following:
NO It is CLEAR they were. they were purified, ARE you saying he purified them without the Spirit, in there sins. HARDLY. you should read verses 10-11. the words spoke before they received the Spirit, especially verse 43. EVERY place it speaks of the gospel message it NEVER brings up water baptism. Crirst remits sin he did the WORK reguired for this. there is NOTHING left to do to remit sin, he did it on the Cross. WAY cant you get this in your head. God is not looking at what we did to remit sin, there is NOTHING we could do to do t his. he is looking for his son in you, WHO did the work needed.

If Cornelius was "saved" when the Holy Ghost fell upon him,as you wrongly assume, then he was somehow "saved" *BEFORE* he heard the saving words, the gospel from Peter, *BEFORE* he did what he ought/necessary 10:6, *BEFORE* he worked righteousness and accepted with God 10:35, *BEFORE* his sins were remitted in water baptism, because baptism with the Holy Ghost does not remit sins. You have created an impossible situation for Cornelius to be "saved" in.
HE did not SPEAK the gospel AFTER they received the spirit SHOW me were he does. YOU got to be kidding to think that telling them to be water baptized is the gospel. THAT IS SO WAY OFF its sad. If it was the gospel then why on hearth does PAul say he was not sent to water baptize, that the only thing he knew was Christ crucified. you are blind open your eyes. You are the one making a impossible situation for everyone, to think WE could do anything to be saved.





There is one gospel with four accounts. The gospel accounts do not contradict themselves, Matthews account is as true as the others. Mt 3:7 plain shows there were Pharisees in John's audience and Pharisees rejected John's baptism, Lk 7:30. So in Mt 3:11 when John tells his audience "I baptize you with water", this pronoun "you" did not include those Pharisees. So the pronoun "you" in this verse is being used in a nonpersonal sense. John simply announced the promise of the baptism with the HOly Ghost, he promised no one in his audience they would receive this baptism. IF the YOU is universsal as you wronly claim, then not only would everyone be baptized with the HOly Spirit, but everyone will be lost (baptized with fire) for John said Jesus would baptize with the Holy Spirit AND fire. Your problem is the "YOU" does not equal "ALL"
Which is why you REFUSE to show the other accounts correct. and just keep repeating the same old thing over and over. ITs there you simple refuse to open your eyes to see it.





If you would look at the immediate context in Mt 3:10-12, the word "fire" is being used to talk about what happens to the lost. Your going all the way back to the OT to find the word fire being used figuratively, then trying apply that remote meaning to the immediate context shows your exegesis is lacking.
HOW about looking at ALL the accounts of it and decide what is being meant. Though that might make you NEED to open your eyes and see.
 
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suzie

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Baptism isnt part of the salvation process. It is an outward sign of an inward conversion. If you are saved and never baptised, you still go to heaven. It is an act of obedience and outward declaration that you are part of the community in Christ. It isnt however a means to become saved.
 
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AllTalkNoAction

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Baptism isnt part of the salvation process. It is an outward sign of an inward conversion. If you are saved and never baptised, you still go to heaven. It is an act of obedience and outward declaration that you are part of the community in Christ. It isnt however a means to become saved.
Baptism shows that you want to be changed by God, so your thoughts are 'converted' but being baptised doesn't necessarily mean that you have received the conversion of the Holy Spirit.

Would you say that someone who refuses believers baptism (immersion) can still be saved ?
 
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New_Wineskin

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Would you say that someone who refuses believers baptism (immersion) can still be saved ?

I would . And , if Paul would go nuts on people insisting on circumcism , he would go further nuts in people insisting on getting wet . Paul would say something like : I wish they would go all the way and drown themselves . ( similar to "emasculate themselves" - for those who don't remember his letter ) .
 
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RefrusRevlis

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I would . And , if Paul would go nuts on people insisting on circumcism , he would go further nuts in people insisting on getting wet . Paul would say something like : I wish they would go all the way and drown themselves . ( similar to "emasculate themselves" - for those who don't remember his letter ) .

This is a totally erroneous analogy! Paul wished those who were trying to bind the OT on Christians would emasculate themselves. They were trying to add to the gospel. The Judaising teachers were wreaking havoc in the church. Baptism on the other hand is a teaching of Paul (and thus the Holy Spirit) - Colossians 2:12, Gala 3:27, 1 Cor 12:13. Baptism saves 1 Peter 3:21.
Refrus
 
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