Friends,
Trinitarians believe that Thomas' famous statement, "My Lord and my God," was addressed SOLELY to Jesus. However, there is no Biblical record to prove that this is the case. This is only in their imagination.
Thus, when confronted with the TRUTH that Jesus is a MAN, they ask: If Jesus were NOT God, why did he NOT correct Thomas?
I used to think that Thomas MISTAKENLY thought that Jesus is God. But on further study, Thomas was NOT mistaken at all because he did NOT call Jesus his God.
Before Thomas met Jesus after the resurrection, he was already told that he has risen. He already knew that he is flesh and bones because Jesus had already told the eleven (Luke 24:39).
However, he did NOT believe that Jesus has risen until he sees and touches him.
Thus, when he met Jesus and touched him, he BELIEVED not only Jesus but he also BELIEVED the one who SENT him (John 14:1). This is evidenced by his saying "my Lord" to Jesus and "my God" to the Father who SENT Jesus.
What makes me certain that this is the case? Thomas was a Jew who was taught from childhood that God is called "Lord God" Almighty. There is NO verse in the Old Testament which shows that God was ever addressed "my Lord and my God." God had ALWAYS been addressed "Lord God" becuse God was the ONE and ONLY Lord in the Old Testament.
On the other hand, Thomas was aware that for THEM, there is ONLY ONE God, the Father and ONLY ONE Lord Jesus Christ (1 Cor. 8:6).
Hence, Thomas' statement was adressed to BOTH Jesus (my Lord) and to the Father (my God). Thomas was correct and Jesus did NOT have any reason to rebuke nor reprimand him for that.
Ed
Trinitarians believe that Thomas' famous statement, "My Lord and my God," was addressed SOLELY to Jesus. However, there is no Biblical record to prove that this is the case. This is only in their imagination.
Thus, when confronted with the TRUTH that Jesus is a MAN, they ask: If Jesus were NOT God, why did he NOT correct Thomas?
I used to think that Thomas MISTAKENLY thought that Jesus is God. But on further study, Thomas was NOT mistaken at all because he did NOT call Jesus his God.
Before Thomas met Jesus after the resurrection, he was already told that he has risen. He already knew that he is flesh and bones because Jesus had already told the eleven (Luke 24:39).
However, he did NOT believe that Jesus has risen until he sees and touches him.
Thus, when he met Jesus and touched him, he BELIEVED not only Jesus but he also BELIEVED the one who SENT him (John 14:1). This is evidenced by his saying "my Lord" to Jesus and "my God" to the Father who SENT Jesus.
What makes me certain that this is the case? Thomas was a Jew who was taught from childhood that God is called "Lord God" Almighty. There is NO verse in the Old Testament which shows that God was ever addressed "my Lord and my God." God had ALWAYS been addressed "Lord God" becuse God was the ONE and ONLY Lord in the Old Testament.
On the other hand, Thomas was aware that for THEM, there is ONLY ONE God, the Father and ONLY ONE Lord Jesus Christ (1 Cor. 8:6).
Hence, Thomas' statement was adressed to BOTH Jesus (my Lord) and to the Father (my God). Thomas was correct and Jesus did NOT have any reason to rebuke nor reprimand him for that.
Ed