here we go....
Matt. 4:7; Luke 4:12 - Jesus tells satan, "you shall not tempt the Lord your God" in reference to Himself.
How about filling in the whole verse to get the full context? Start at Luke 4;7 and you will see that Yeshua(AS) is NOT refering to himself. Nowhere does he say worship me I AM the Lord thy G-d!Never!
Matt. 5:21-22; 27-28; 31-32; 33-34; 38-39; 43-44 - Jesus makes Himself equal to God (you heard said / but I say to you).
Yeshua(AS) is not making himself equal to g-d anywhere here.
Matt. 7:21-22; Luke 6:46 - not everyone who says to Jesus, "Lord, Lord." Jesus calls Himself Lord, which is God.
The capitalization of lord here is arbitrary since this type of punctuation does not exist in any semitic language of the bible. The word is rabbi not rabbonai or Adonai.
Matt. 9:2; Mark 2:5; Luke 5:20; 7:48 - Jesus forgives sins. Only God can forgive sin.
False interpretation allows the reader to think that Yeshua(AS) is forging sins. Yeshua(AS) says that your sins are forgiven, NOT I forgive your sins.
Matt. 12:8; Mark 2:28; Luke 6:5 - Jesus says that He is "Lord of the Sabbath." He is the Lord of God's law = God. More false interpretation. Learn Jewish idiom usage and you will see that such a phrase as "lord of the Law" is one who follows it strictly.
Matt. 18:20 - Jesus says where two or three are gathered in His name, there He is in the midst of them.
Only inference will allow the mind to think that Yesua(AS) is calling himself g-d here. Besides the punctuation problems, Pagans also believe that gathering in the name of a person will summon its spirit.
Matt. 21:3; Luke 19:31,34 - Jesus calls himself "Lord." "The Lord has need of them."
More inference. Yeshua(AS) says the Lord(Adonai) has use of them, NOT "I have use of them"
Matt. 26:64; Mark 14:62; Luke 22:70 - Jesus acknowledges that He is the Son of God.
Again false interpretation and doctoring have occured here. The Jewish texts all say "son of Man" and ancient Jewish idiom for "human"
Matt. 28:20 - Jesus said He is with us always, even unto the end of the world. Only God is omnipresent.
This implies that Yeshua is saying that he is eternal, NOT omnipresent. And ALL humans ARE immortal. Also pagan writers who put thesewords in Yeshua's mouth wanted to convey thast when a body dies, the spirit remains.
Mark 14:36 - Jesus calls God "Abba," Aramaic for daddy, which was an absolutely unprecedented address to God.
This is not an unpresendented occurence. Numerous cultures looked to a father in the sky and numerous individual called g-d their "abba"
Luke 8:39 - Luke reports that Jesus said "tell how much God has done for you." And the man declared how much Jesus did.
This shows that that man believed that Yeshua(AS) was g-d.
Luke 17:18 - Jesus asks why the other nine lepers did not come back to give praise to Him, God, except the Samaritan leper.
Yeshua is remarking that some have not returned to give glory to g-d, through WHOM he has healed people, NOT, give glory to himself.
Luke 19:38,40 - Blessed is He who comes in the name of the Lord. If these were silent, the very stones would cry out.
Once again the capitalization is the editors. Even so Yeshua(AS) is still not refering explicitly to himself.
John 5:18 - Jesus claimed to be God. This Jews knew this because Jesus called God His Father and made Himself equal to God.
First of all, saying that g-d is his Father does NOT equate him with g-d. Second these passages make it seem that yYeshua(AS)( was at odds with the Pharisees, which he was not.
John 5:21-22 - Jesus gives life and says that all judgment has been given to Him by the Father.
Yeshua(AS) simply says that his power is given to him by the Father, he does NOT say that he is g-d. Besides this would contradict the passages where Yeshua says the father has power over all things, and is more powerful that him. Yeshua(AS) alsd says that thr power to raise the dead to life is given to him, NOT the power to GIVE life.
John 5:23 - Jesus equates Himself with the Father - whoever does not honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent Him.
This does not say that Yeshua is g-d, rather it is saying that those who do not honor g-d's messengers do not honr g-d.
John 6:38 - Jesus says, "For I have come down from heaven."
Which one of us has not had his spirit, his true essence, come down from heaven?
John 8:12 - Jesus says "I am the light of the world." - 1 John 1:5 - God is light and in him there is no darkness at all.
This idiom means that yeshua brings truth(light) to where there is falsehood(Darkness in the world). Yesua(AS) is only the light of the world, g-d Is light .period. Light of the Universe and more!
John 8:19 - Jesus says, "if you knew me, you would know my Father also."
Only conjecture would allow someone to think that a human can know a infinite being or that an infinite being can be known by being contained in a finite vessel(BODY)
John 8:23 - Jesus says that He is not of this world. Only God is not of this world.
Besides the fact that this is interpolaation to fit previuos doctrine: The gospels were written AFTER Paul's letters, you should be able to recognize that this idiom means that Yeshua(AS) did not concern himself with earthly things but spiritual matters.
John 8:58 - Jesus says, "Before Abraham was, I AM." Exodus 3:14 - I AM = Yahweh.
Obvious misunderstanding. Why did not Yeshua say "Before Abraham(AS) was, I was? If you read it correctly it says Before Abraham was Yahweh,which means Allah existed before everything.
John 10:18 - Jesus says He has the power to lay down His life and take it up again - Gal. 1:1 - God raised Jesus to life.
This is a Gnostic teaching put into the mouth of Yeshua(AS). Do not all humans have the power to take their own lives? Did not Allah gives us the power to rise again through him. Yeshua(AS) is not unique in this!Galatians says g-d rised Yeshua(AS), not Yeshua raised himself.
John 10:30 - Jesus says, "I and the Father are one." They are equal. The Jews even claimed Jesus made Himself equal to God. John 14:28 - "the Father is greater than I" cannot contradict John 10:30. Refers to human messianic role as servant and slave.
You simply ignored the fact that John 14;28 contradicts John 10:30 because your acceptance of doctrine on blind faith will not allow you to see this contradiction. These two statements are mutually exclusive; one can NOT be equal to and less than Allah. I and the father are one equates submission to Allah's will such that yeshua nad Allah are in agremment. Otherwise it would read "I and the father are one Bieng, One person"!
John 10:36 - again, Jesus claims that He is "the Son of God."
Jesus never claims this! The Aramaic sys son of man, the idiom for human, mortal.
John 10:38; 14:10 - "the Father is in me and I am in the Father" = the Father and Son are equal.
Only if you accept the doctrine can you say that the Father and Son are equal.The statement can mean any number of things!Dont' christians sing grater is he that is in me? Is not the Father in all of us as well. Us Yeshua(AS) unique in this?
John 12:45 - Jesus says, "He who sees Me sees Him who sent Me." God the Father is equal to God the Son.
More conjecture on your part. why did you leave out the beginning of the passage to give its full context?John 12:44 Jesus cried and said:He that believeth on me(notice the LOWER CASE), BELIEVETH NOT ON ME, BUT ON HIM THAT SENT ME.
John 13:13 - Jesus says you call me Teacher and Lord and you are right for so I AM.
The aramaic reads Master(Teacher), A title given to an Essene teacher, and rabb(lord), NOT Adonai(LORD).
John 14:6 - Jesus says "I am the way, and the truth and the life." Only God is the way, the truth and the life.
" No man can get ot heaven except by following my ways, which are not my ways but g-d's way. "I am the way, and the truth and the life,...but by me." read it again, and read the entire chapter for context.
John 16:15 - Jesus says, "all things that the Father has are Mine." Jesus has everything God has which makes Him God.
This verse implies, but does not state explicitly that Yeshua(AS) is equal to g-d, and it would have been much better to state this verse only to make your case. However, there are many other verses that directly refute the idea that Yeshua(AS) is g-d.
John 16:28 - Jesus says that He came from the Father and has come into the world.
Already explained, how evryone comes from the father!
John 17:5,24 - Jesus' desire is for us to behold His glory which He had before the foundation of the world.
This whole verse creates so many problems that I can not deal with it here. Yeshua supposedly says g-d has given him power to give humans eternal life? When have humans not had eternal life? I hope he means eternal life in heaven! Suffice it to say Yeshua(AS) probably did not say this, and it should be said that Mary Magdalene wrote this gospel, not John, at this point.
John 20:17 - Jesus distinguishes His relationship to the Father from our relationship by saying "My Father and your Father."
Only conjecture would allow this interpretation. Yeshua(AS) seems to be saying that he is equal to man b/c, we all share the same father, including him!
Rev. 1:8 - God says He is the "Alpha and the Omega." In Rev. 22:13, Jesus also says He is the "Alpha and Omega, the First and the Last, the beginning and the end." The only possible conclusion one can reach is that Jesus is equal to the Lord God.
No, this is NOT the only conclusion to reach! The One True God has no beginning and no end!Besides that revelation is John's interpretation of a vision he had, and should not be used to make doctrinal assertions!
Rev. 1:17 - Jesus says again, "I am the First and the Last." This is in reference to the God prophesied by Isaiah in Isaiah 44:6, 41:4, 48:12.
Besides the obvious problems with using revelations to support dictrine, Isaiah 44:6 says that the Lord and his redeemer are the first and the last, and then contradictorily say that beside "me", instead of beside"us", there is no g-d. The OT surely does have it's problems!
Rev. 1:18 - Jesus, the First and the Last, also says "I died, and behold, I am alive for evermore." When did God ever die? He only did in the humanity of Jesus Christ our Lord and God.
This saying can apply to ALL of humanity, as we will all die and live forever more, either in heaven or hellfire.
Rev. 2:8 - Jesus again says, "The words of the First and the Last, who died and came to life." When did God die and come to life? In our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ.
God never died, my friend. And Yeshua, if he was truly g-d, could not have made a real death sacrifice, since g-d can't really die anyway. Illogical. I hope you realize that you just said god died.
It will be much better if we discuss john 16:15 only, so that you can make your case.
In the meanwhile I will post the verses where Yeshua(as) denies his divinity, and you can check out:
returningtofaithofyeshua.freeservers.com
peace and blessings
assalamu alaikum
shalom