Learning New Testament Greek

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filosofer

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If you want to truly learn Greek, then buy a good book and try to get with a class or instructor.

Greek Grammar Molly Whitaker

Fundamentals of Greek Grammar James Voelz

It's Greek to Me Countryman

If you want to go through a site that has many articles related to Greek grammar, etc., then check out the various links at:

http://www.bible.org (that should keep you going for some time :) )
 
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Gerry--sorry I didn't explain myself. I am aware of Strong's but wanted to be able to read greek, instead of using the concordance to look up translations. It's not anything that I can do overnight but wondered what others may have tryed for self-paced study :)

Filo--Thank you for the suggestions!!! I recently bought 'Essentials of New Testament Greek' by Steven Cox and was just looking for supplemental info since it's harder for me to learn a new language outside of a class.

I wanted to audit a beginning Greek course this fall but my other classes won't permit me to make the commitment. Thus, I hope I am well-equipped for this daunting task ;)
 
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Thanks for the encouragement Filo :) I am excited about it and although I have the alphabet memorized and can write & ID the capital letters, I have a long way to go!!! I'm sure you know what I'm talking about--dipthongs, vowels, etc. I'm trying to be patient and not worry too much about learning how to read until I master the sounds.

Julie--I am interested in learning Greek for the same reasons Jeremiah is interested in Greek. I want to be able to read the original text of the bible, as it was written. If you've used the concordance or studied the Word w/someone who knew Greek, then you'd understand that things get lost in translation sometimes. (This is true for any language--sometimes there aren't words to describe when trying to translate something from one language to the another).

Maybe Filo you could provide an example from your studies of the Greek text?

Also wondering Filo, if you know Hebrew (for the Old Testament) and whether you read from a bible written in both Hebrew & Greek? If you are familiar with both, was it difficult to learn Hebrew? Are there similarities, such as the ones found between Spanish & French?
 
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What I love about the Bible, is that the message of Christ can be understood on a very simple level in English, say in the NIT. We then have the opportunity to continue growing in our study of God's Living Word, by going deeper in our studies using more accurate English translations from Greek, such as the KJV, using Commentaries, or even studying the original language the Bible was written in.

I have found that http://www.studylight.org is an excellent place to grow in studying the Bible. You can search a verse in several commentaries, translations, or even use Greek and Hebrew lexicons to study the Bible more closely.

However, the simple message of the Bible should never be ignored, so that it can be translated to the simplist of minds if we are called to minister to another.

Regarding Jeremiah's post, I think that it is very important to have a handle on the entire Bible in the language a person uses the most often. The KJV NT is an excellent English translation of the original Greek the NT was written in. For a strictly English speaking person, nothing vital for discipling is lost in knowing it well in its translation.

Most important of all is a read of John 5:39,40- Gotta come to Christ to get anything out of a dilagent study of Scripture.

We all have our own reasons for learning a language, and Praise God for continuing to learn and grow in His Word to improve our ministry to others!

Furthermore, the Bible tells us Christians will continue to learn in Heaven, over an infinite amount of time! Can you imagine?? I can't wait!!

Here's a few good learning Greek online sites:

http://www.agni.gr/learn_greek/learn_greek.htm
http://www.furman.edu/~cblack01/greek_lessons/greekintro.html
http://www.ilearngreek.com/
http://www.theology.edu/greek01.htm
http://www.ntgreek.org/learn_nt_greek/grkindex.htm

Here's an example of why I think it can help one grow in the Word to know Greek:

"...that if you believe in your heart" (Rom 10:8).

The Greek word for "heart" is "kardia" here. Kardia means mind, will, and all of one's body. A person may translate heart only literally as the organ and not do the most important thing when reading this verse- believe it honestly in the mind. However, John 3:16 among others is a clarifier to the belief cited in this verse. So my point is while not necessary, learning Greek can be of great benefit.

Thanks to God, and prayers for your continued desire to grow in Christ, Little Sheep! And I could use some quick prayers for the same myself over here...for His will.
 
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filosofer

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Also wondering Filo, if you know Hebrew (for the Old Testament) and whether you read from a bible written in both Hebrew & Greek? If you are familiar with both, was it difficult to learn Hebrew? Are there similarities, such as the ones found between Spanish & French?

Yes, at seminary it was required to learn both Greek and Hebrew before beginning to take Hermeneutics, NT Isagogics (two courses), and OT Isagogics (two courses) - and these were required before taking any Biblical books. All Biblical book courses were based on the Hebrew (OT) or Greek (NT).

I had taken Latin 40 years ago, and German following that. Then took a year of Russian ~ 30 years ago while in the military. After teaching myself Greek before going to seminary, I then took the full Greek sequence at seminary. Hebrew was strange at first, but in terms of structure it is closer to English in some ways than Greek. At one time I was fairly proficient in Hebrew, but I am much stronger in Greek. I also have taught Greek classes four different times, so that has helped me stay in better condition; I have taught Hebrew only once and that was 15 years ago.
 
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filosofer

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1. We thank God that there are translations available, and in English many to choose from! The goal of translations is to take the writings of the original languages and give them to people who do not know Hebrew/Aramaic/Greek.

2. Translations are just that, they do not replace nor supercede the original writings. For someone who does not understand the original languages, it is most helpful to use more than one translation, preferably translations that differ in approach (formal equivalence FE and meaning-based MB). One translation can provide a good start and even foundation for understanding the text. But the original languages are still key.

3. Doctrine is based on the original languages, not on translations. And doctrinal disputes are ultimately settled based on the original languages.

-----

For those who might be interested, it is important to remember that Greek is a highly inflected language, English is not. That is, the verb in Greek denotes, mood, tense, voice, person, and gender (in the case of participles). Those changes are indicated by changing the verb. In English we have some inflection, indicated by changes in the verb ("give" "gave"), but for the most part, in English we use helping verbs to denote changes.

Also, in Greek the nouns, pronouns, demonstrative pronouns, and relative pronouns change endings to indicate its function in the sentence (we speak of "cases" such as nominative, genitive, dative, and accusative). In English, it is the placement of the word that indicates its function, although we have some changes, especially with pronouns he/his/him.

In the present tense it is relatively easy. In the following in Greek, the subject is implied in the verb form, whereas in English

Greek / English

BLEPW / I see, I am seeing, I do see (1st person singular)

BLEPEIS / you (sg) see (2nd person singular)

BLEPEI / he-she-it sees (3rd person singular) - note change in English verb

BLEPOMEN / we see (1st person plural)

BLEPETE / you (pl) see (2nd person plural)

BLEPOUSIV / they see (3rd person plural)

Thus, in the Greek sentence PAULOS BLEPEI IHSOUN is the same as IHSOUN BLEPEI PAULOS regardless of word order ("Paul sees Jesus"). But in English the meaning changes: "Paul sees Jesus" is not the same as "Jesus sees Paul."

When we move into other moods and tenses and voices, the verb can change in three ways: the prefix added, the stem changed, and a suffix added.

Present passive indicative: BLEPOMAI ("I am seen")

Imperfect active indicative: EBLEPON ("I was seeing")

Future active indicative: BLEPSW ("I will see")

Aorist active indicative: EBLEPSA ("I saw")

etc.


If you desire more, I can provide more examples and further details, and also with Hebrew.
 
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Julie

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God Always Translates Perfectly

The words "translate" and "translated" occur three times in the Bible, and GOD is the Translator each time. The scholars insist that the KJV cannot be infallible, because it is "only a translation." Do you suppose that such scholars have checked II Samuel 3:10, Colossians 1:13, and Hebrews 11:5 to see what GOD has to say about translating?

In II Samuel 3:10 we are told that it was God Who translated Saul's kingdom to David. We are told in Colossians 1:13 that Christians have been translated into the kingdom of Jesus Christ, and Hebrews 11:5 tells us that God translated Enoch that he should not see death. God was the One doing the translating each time. What's the point? The point is that a translation CAN be perfect, if God is involved in the translating.

When the New Testament writers would quote the Old Testament (Mt. 1:23; Mk. 1:2; Lk. 4:4; Jn. 15:25; Acts 1:20; 7:42; I Cor. 2:9; Gal. 3:13, etc.), they had to TRANSLATE from Hebrew to Greek, because the Old Testament was written in Hebrew, but THEY wrote in Greek. So, if a translation cannot be infallible, then EVEN THE NEW TESTAMENT IN THE "ORIGINAL GREEK" ISN'T INFALLIBLE, because it contains translations from the Hebrew text!

Obviously God assisted them in their translating by the leadership of the Holy Spirit, and He assisted the King James translators as well. The scholars will never understand this, for most of them have QUENCHED the Holy Spirit in their own lives by looking to higher education for truth, rather than seeking the Lord's leadership (Jn. 16:13).

The Holy Spirit Who inspired the word of God through "holy men of God" (II Pet. 1:21) is quite capable of guiding His servants to KEEP the words which Jesus told us to keep (Jn. 14:23). In essence, the KJV translators were merely INSTRUMENTS which God used in translating and preserving His word. In fact, they said this themselves in the Dedicatory to the Authorized Version: ". . . . because we are poor instruments to make God's holy truth to be yet more and more known to the people. . . "

I know the King James Bible is the word of God, because God is very capable of using anyone He pleases as His very own instruments of righteousness in order to preserve His word.
 
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filosofer

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#17 God Always Translates Perfectly

The words "translate" and "translated" occur three times in the Bible, and GOD is the Translator each time. The scholars insist that the KJV cannot be infallible, because it is "only a translation." Do you suppose that such scholars have checked II Samuel 3:10, Colossians 1:13, and Hebrews 11:5 to see what GOD has to say about translating?

In II Samuel 3:10 we are told that it was God Who translated Saul's kingdom to David. We are told in Colossians 1:13 that Christians have been translated into the kingdom of Jesus Christ, and Hebrews 11:5 tells us that God translated Enoch that he should not see death. God was the One doing the translating each time. What's the point? The point is that a translation CAN be perfect, if God is involved in the translating.

The problem is that the Greek word in Colossians 1:13 and Hebrews 11:5 has nothing to do with "translate" as in taking words from one language and putting them into meaningfully accurate words in another language. Rather, the word is METATIQHMI which means "convey to another place" or "put in another place" or "transfer." (Check out a Greek lexicon for futher information.) That matches with the context in which God transfers us from the domain of darkness into the kingdom of his Son.

Likewise for the Hebrew word in 2 Samuel 3:10. Words do have meaning. And to use an antiquated meaning (i.e. "translate" in KJV which carried as a possible meaning of "transfer" in the 17th century) and to give it an entirely different meaning in contemporary English to support a position that the KJV does not support, is at best poor study and at worst deceptive.

Obviously God assisted them in their translating by the leadership of the Holy Spirit, and He assisted the King James translators as well. The scholars will never understand this, for most of them have QUENCHED the Holy Spirit in their own lives by looking to higher education for truth, rather than seeking the Lord's leadership (Jn. 16:13).

Well, at least you aren't judgmental about others' spiritual lives. ;)

The Holy Spirit Who inspired the word of God through "holy men of God" (II Pet. 1:21) is quite capable of guiding His servants to KEEP the words which Jesus told us to keep (Jn. 14:23). In essence, the KJV translators were merely INSTRUMENTS which God used in translating and preserving His word. In fact, they said this themselves in the Dedicatory to the Authorized Version: ". . . . because we are poor instruments to make God's holy truth to be yet more and more known to the people. . . "

So when translators today use those same words and follow the same procedure, they are castigated as unfaithful, 'self-appointed scholars," who have no spiritual depth, etc. ... And the same Holy Spirit who used the translators of the Latin versions, and later Latin Jerome, and Gothic, and Armenian, and Coptic, and English, and German, and also used the KJV translators and the translators of every version since then. And we give thanks to God for his faithfulness, that God didn't stop with the KJV despite the arrogance of those who espouse the KJV-Only position.
 
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I've been trying to learn Greek recently, myself, because first of all I bought a Greek NT which was expensive, so I might as well learn to read it, and secondly because I want to study deeper, and without relying quite so heavily on studies others have done, and having to read others' objections without really understanding how they come to those objections. Also, I'd like to do a study on the Greek words for love, and how they were used in pre-NT and post-NT Greek literature.

I have a question for filosofer - if I learn NT Greek, will I be able to understand ancient Greek too? I know koine is a variant of it, but is the same as, for example, reading modern english as opposed to middle english? So..sort of understandable but words have changed their meanings?

-Divinus
 
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