Some more questions.
5) Matthew 10.20 For it is not ye that speak, but the Spirit of your Father which speaketh in you.
Is this a "third Person of the Godhead" or another Person's Spirit that speaks?
Clark's commentary:
Mat 10:20 -
For it is - the Spirit of your Father, etc. - This was an extraordinary promise, and was literally fulfilled to those first preachers of the Gospel; and to them it was essentially necessary, because the New Testament dispensation was to be fully opened by their extraordinary inspiration. In a certain measure, it may be truly said, that the Holy Spirit animates the true disciples of Christ, and enables them to speak. The Head speaks in his members, by his Spirit; and it is the province of the Spirit of God to speak for God. Neither surprise, defect of talents, nor even ignorance itself, could hurt the cause of God, in the primitive times, when the hearts and minds of those Divine men were influenced by the Holy Spirit.
Your Father - This is added to excite and increase their confidence in God.
6a) 1 John 1.3 That which we have seen and heard declare we unto you, that ye also may have fellowship with us: and truly our fellowship is with the Father, and with his Son Jesus Christ.
Why isn't a "third Person of the Godhead" mentioned in this passage?
You keep going back to this kind of question. If you really want to understand it, forget about doctrines and take just the Scripture into account. During ancient times,
it must have already been understood that the Father was the Holy Spirit.
6b) 2 John 9 Whosoever transgresseth, and abideth not in the doctrine of Christ, hath not God. He that abideth in the doctrine of Christ, he hath both the Father and the Son.
Why isn't a "third Person of the Godhead" mentioned in this passage?
it must have already been understood that the Father was the Holy Spirit.
6c) John 8,17-18 It is also written in your law, that the testimony of two men is true. I am one that bear witness of myself, and the Father that sent me beareth witness of me.
Why isn't a "third Person of the Godhead" mentioned in this passage?
Barns commentary:
Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
The Father ...beareth witness of me - By the voice from heaven at his baptism Mat_3:17, and by the miracles which Jesus performed, as well as by the prophecies of the Old Testament. We may here remark:
1. that there is a distinction between the Father and the Son. They are both represented as bearing testimony; yet,
2. They are not divided. They are not different beings. They bear testimony to the same thing, and are one in counsel, in plan, in essence, and in glory.
Peoples New Testament commentary:
Joh 8:18 -
The Father . . . beareth witness. By the prophets, by the works that Jesus does, by his voice at the baptism, and by John the Baptist.
John Gill's commentary:
And the Father that sent me, beareth witness of me; as he did, by the descent of the Spirit upon him at his baptism, and by a voice from heaven, both at that time, and at his transfiguration, and by the miracles which he wrought; and particularly he bore testimony of him, long before, in prophecy, that he was the light of the world he now said he was, Isa_42:6; so that here were two testifiers, his Father and himself; which show them to be two distinct divine persons, and equal to each other: and now if the testimony of two men is true, firm, and authentic, and to be depended upon and received, then much more the testimony of two divine persons; see 1Jo_5:9.
6d) 1 Timothy 5.21 I charge thee before
God, and the Lord
Jesus Christ, and the elect angels.
1Jn 5:9 If we receive the testimony of men, the testimony of God is greater: for this is the testimony of God which he hath testified of his Son.
6e) Romans 15.6 That ye may with one mind and one mouth glorify God, even the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ.
Why isn't a "third Person of the Godhead" mentioned in this passage?
6f) 1 Corinthians 8.6 But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.
Why isn't a "third Person of the Godhead" mentioned in this passage?
6g) Daniel 7.13 I saw in the night visions, and, behold, one like the Son of man came with the clouds of heaven, and came to the Ancient of days, and they brought him near before him.
Why isn't a "third Person of the Godhead" mentioned in this passage?
You ask the same kind of question and I gave you the same kind of answer.
See my above answers.
7) 1 Corinthians 2.11 For what man knoweth the things of a man, save the spirit of man which is in him? even so the things of God knoweth no man, but the Spirit of God.
If "the Spirit of God" is a distict Person separate from the Person "God," wouldn't "the spirit of man" be a distinct person separate from "man," since it says "EVEN SO" in the text?
John Wesley Commentary:
1Co 2:11 - For what man knoweth the things of a man - All the inmost recesses of his mind; although men are all of one nature, and so may the more easily know one another. So the things of God knoweth no one but the Spirit - Who, consequently, is God
Clark's commentary:
1Co 2:11 -
For what man knoweth the things of a man - The word ανθρωπων in the first clause is omitted by the Codex Alexandrinus, and one other; and by Athanasius, Cyril, and Vigil of Tapsus. Bishop Pearce contends strongly against the authenticity of the word, and reads the passage thus: For what is there that knoweth the things of a man, except the spirit of a man that is in him? I leave out, says the learned bishop, ανθρωπων, with the Alexandrian MS., and read τις γαρ οιδεν τα του ανθρωπου; because I conceive that the common reading is wide of St. Pauls meaning; for to say, What man except the spirit of a man, is (I think) to speak improperly, and to suppose that the spirit of a man is a man; but it is very proper to say, What except the spirit of a man: τις is feminine as well as masculine, and therefore may be supplied with ουσια, or some such word, as well as with ανθρωπος. Though the authority for omitting this word is comparatively slender, yet it must be owned that its omission renders the text much more intelligible. But even one MS. may preserve the true reading.
The spirit of a man knows the things of a man: that is, a man is conscious of all the schemes, plans, and purposes, that pass in his own mind; and no man can know these things but himself. So, the Spirit of God, He whom we call the Third Person of the glorious Trinity, knows all the counsels and determinations of the Supreme Being. As the Spirit is here represented to live in God as the soul lives in the body of a man, and as this Spirit knows all the things of God, and had revealed those to the apostles which concern the salvation of the world, therefore what they spoke and preached was true, and men may implicitly depend upon it. The miracles which they did, in the name of Christ, were the proof that they had that Spirit, and spoke the truth of God.
8) Zechariah 6:12-13 And speak unto him, saying, Thus speaketh
the LORD of hosts, saying, Behold the man whose name is
The BRANCH; and he shall grow up out of his place, and
he shall build the temple of
the LORD: Even he shall build the temple of the LORD; and he shall bear the glory, and shall sit and rule upon his throne; and he shall be a priest upon his throne: and the counsel of peace shall be between them
both.
BOTH means two. Assuming that "the BRANCH" is Jesus and "the LORD" is Jesus' Father, why isn't a "third Person of the Godhead" mentioned in this passage?
If you have an answer for any of the questions, please address them by number.
See above answers about God being Holy Spirit.
