Son of Man

You could try Hebrews chapter 1 and 2... When I read that passage, something clicked with me. Maybe that will be the same for you. And hey, if not, keep searching! I hope that helps!

Check out Daniel 7:13.

Note also vs. 14 in Daniel 7 speaks of the Son of Man, the Divine Messiah Who will reign everlastingly.

Vs. 13 refers to the "Ancient of days" Who is the Father of the Son of Man yet in vs. 22, it says "... the Ancient of days came..." - the title applied to the Father in vs. 13 is here applied to the Son. The Father is never said to "come" in Scripture; it is the Son who comes and it is in His hand that all judgment has been given by the Father.

It is one of the many times, even in the OT where 1) it speaks of the plurality within the Being of God and 2) the Deity of Christ!


Ray

While there are a number of passages which speak about the Son of Man and while their are many passages which show that thhis was a term that Jesus particularly enjoyed using for himself, there is no one particular place that you can go and find the answer. But there is an explanation.

It has to do with the Hebrew concept of the kinsman redeemer. Leviticus 25:25 Ruth 1-4 Several types are given in the Book of Ruth.
Naomi left the land and went out to exile picturing Israel's departure from God.
Ruth pictures the Gentile bride of Christ.
Boaz is a picture of Christ, the Kinsman Redeemer;
The brother of Boaz is a picture of the law that cannot redeem
The "kinsman redeemer" is a Goel. The word means to redeem, receive or buy back. Provision was made in the Law of Moses for the poor person who was forced to sell part of his property or himself into slavery. His nearest of kin could step in and "buy back" what his relative was forced to sell (Leviticus 25:48f). The kinsman redeemer was a rich benefactor, or person who frees the debtor by paying the ransom price. "If thy brother be waxen poor, and hath sold away some of his possession, and if any of his kin come to redeem it, then shall he redeem that which his brother sold." (Leviticus 25:25; cf. Ruth 4:4, 6).
The nearest of kin had the responsibility of redeeming his kinsman's lost opportunities. If a person was forced into slavery, his redeemer purchased his freedom. When debt threatened to overwhelm him, the kinsman stepped in to redeem his homestead and let the family live. If a family member died without an heir the kinsman gave his name by marrying the widow and rearing a son to hand down his name (Deuteronomy 25:5; Genesis 38:8; Ruth 3-4).

Jesus is and was fully G-d, but in order to redeem sinners He had to become qualified to be the Kinsman redeemer. For this to happen He had to be fully man as well, and free from the curse of sin that condemned mankind. This is the reason that the term Son of Man seems to be Jesus' favorite term to use for Himself.

nprMommy said:

Can anyone tell why Jesus refers to himself as the the son of man? Is there a scripture that I could read to find this information?

Click to expand...

Son of man is a covenant term relating to the relationship of Jesus to mankind for the legal purposes of fulfilling the work of redemption of mankind.
If Jesus was not a Son of man, then He was not entitled to die for man's sin.

It's hard to know whether he constantly used Son of Man, or the writer is trying to parallel "One like a Son of Man" in Daniel (7:13, I think) because he understood the Old Testament scriptures.

it def comes from Daniel 7:13-14....notice in Mark the high priest cries blasphemy when Chrsit calls Himself the Son of Man.

Mark 14:62 And Jesus said, I am: and ye shall see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven. 63 Then the high priest rent his clothes, and saith, What need we any further witnesses?
64 Ye have heard the blasphemy: what think ye? And they all condemned him to be guilty of death.

Jesus refers to Himself as the Son of Man in Matt: 9:6; 11:19; 12:8,32,40; 13:37,41; 16:13,27,28; and 26:64. There may be more times - that was in the cross-reference on 9:6 in my Bible. As Macca stated, in order to redeem man's sins and also to establish the kingdom of the heavens, the Lord had to be a Man. He was fully God and fully Man. In Matt 4:3, when Satan adressed Him as the Son of God, Jesus responded as Man in verse 4.