WHEN THAT WHICH IS PERFECT IS COME
INTRODUCTION
An analysis of 1 Cor. 13:8-13 is extremely important with regard to the subject of spiritual gifts since the passage clearly foretells their demise. Knowing the termination point for charismatic activity heavily depends on a proper understanding of these verses and the identification of "that which is perfect" (1 Cor. 13:10) in particular. Proponents of current charismatic claims must, of necessity, correlate the "perfect" with the end of earthly life. Yet, strangely, many exegetes of the passage who deny the genuineness of modern claims for spiritual gifts still see the reference point of the "perfect" as future to our time. Others see the passage as "ambiguous" at best.<1> In so doing, they overlook the usefulness of this passage in militating against the current Pentecostal persuasion. It is our hope that the following exegesis will show that, rather than being ambiguous, these verses are crucial and definitive for the question of the time-frame of the cessation of spiritual gifts.<2>
SPIRITUAL GIFTS WERE TO CEASE
Supernatural endowments from the Holy Spirit were foretold by Jesus (Mark 16:17-18) and described as fact in the New Testament (Mark 16:20; Acts 2:1-4,43; 8:6; 10:44-46; 14:3; Heb. 2:3-4; etc.). Each of these phenomena was called a "spiritual gift" (Rom. 1:11), and Paul specifies nine such gifts operating in the first-century church (1 Cor. 12:4-11). All of them were miraculous.<3>
Paul then discusses further some of "the greater gifts" as he contrasts them with love as their superior (1 Cor. 12:31--13:7). He singles out tongues, prophecy, (inspired) knowledge and (supernatural) faith.<4> Three of these gifts (representing all of them) are further contrasted with the representative Christian virtues of faith, hope and love (1 Cor. 13:8-13). The contrast has to do with their duration. As long as this earth shall last, faith, hope and love will abide (1 Cor. 13:13) whereas spiritual gifts such as those producing "prophecies," "tongues" and "knowledge" would "cease" or "be done away" (1 Cor. 13:8). The termination of the gifts would be "when that which is perfect is come" (1 Cor. 13:10).
WHAT "PERFECT" DOES NOT MEAN
Some have supposed that Jesus is "the perfect" that will "come" at the end of time.<5> However, the Greek construction denies this possibility for the word "perfect" is neuter, which cannot refer to the mature Christ. The neuter terms "infant" ([@brefos]) or "child" ([@paidion]) were used for all youngsters, including Jesus (Luke 2:16-17). So the baby Jesus would naturally be called "the holy thing" (Luke 1:35; see also Matt. 1:20). But upon reaching puberty Jesus, like all others, was referred to in masculine terms. He is a person, not a thing -- a "he who," not a "that which." 1 John 1:1,3 is no exception because there the writer refers not to Jesus himself but to things about or "concerning" him that were "heard," "seen," "beheld" and "handled."<6>
Others have thought Paul refers to a "perfect" state of existence which will "come" to us in heaven at the dawn of eternity. Thus, Adam Clarke, for example, refers to "the state of eternal blessedness."<7> Lenski refers to "the complete state" which is reached at "the Parousia of Christ."<8> And many others similarly interpret.<9> Even some brethren have either suggested or maintained this view.<10> However, heaven or eternity is not mentioned anywhere in this context. The chapter discusses Christian virtues and gifts in this world where poverty, suffering and evil abound (1 Cor. 13:1-8). It contrasts the temporary gifts with permanent characteristics as far as this life is concerned. The word "perfect" does not here or anywhere else in the Bible refer to the sinless, flawless state of heaven.
Still others have affirmed that Christian maturity -- or love as its chief element -- is "that which is perfect." Among our brethren, Carroll Osburn has taken the former view and Jim McGuiggan the latter. These arguments ignore the immediate context (a contrast in duration -- 1 Cor. 13:8-13, rather than value -- 1 Cor. 13:1-7), and they also ignore the definitive statement of 1 Cor. 13:9-10 (a contrast in quantity).<11> Osburn goes all the way back to 1 Cor. 2:6 for the premise of his maturity argument, completely missing the point of 1 Cor. 13:9-10 in his unsuccessful attempt to define the contrast in terms of quality (maturity versus imperfection) rather than quantity (totality versus partiality).<12>
McGuiggan argues long for "perfect" love but likewise misses the whole point. He asks why God would speak of completed revelation in connection with the cessation of gifts.<13> The answer is to be found in the purpose of the gifts in the first place -- confirmation of the Word while it was being delivered via inspired preaching! Both of these writers seem to think that spiritual gifts were for the purpose of maturation in love. But notice: (1) The gifts of prophecy and knowledge were for the purpose of providing information (1 Cor. 13:2; 14:3-6,19); (2) Tongues were for a sign to unbelievers (1 Cor. 14:22), not to mature the love of Christians; (3) The spiritual gifts of the Corinthians were contributing to personal immaturity, not maturity (1 Cor. 3:1; 14:20); (4) Spiritual gifts were needed because Christians were still "childish" in the level of knowledge (1 Cor. 13:11), not in attitude; (5) Paul was certainly mature but he still had spiritual gifts (1 Cor. 2:1-6) and spoke in tongues more than the Corinthians (1 Cor. 14:18); (6) People today are just as immature and unloving as ever (maybe more so), yet spiritual gifts have ceased! Why?
Getting Christians to love one another was neither the sole purpose of the Lord's dealings with his people nor of Paul's letter to the Corinthians. Beginning with 1 Cor. 7:1 Paul answers questions which they had raised. In 1 Cor. 12--14 it was his aim to give information (1 Cor. 12:1) regarding the purpose, diversification, estimation, regulation, and (in 1 Cor. 13:8-13) termination of spiritual gifts. Nowhere does Paul so much as hint that supernatural gifts were given to the church because Christians were unable to love each other! He wants them to have love and gifts (1 Cor. 12:31; 14:1).
WHAT "PERFECT" DOES MEAN
The Greek word translated "perfect" ([@teleios]) means "having attained the end or purpose, complete."<14> It may be applied to people with the meaning of "full-grown, mature, adult,"<15> being "perfect and entire, lacking in nothing" (James 1:4). Or it may refer to the finality of anything which has been "brought to its end, finished."<16> In contrast to the oft-heard statement that "nothing in this world is perfect," let us notice how the New Testament uses this Greek word in some of its 20 occurrences.
Christians are expected to be "perfect" (and can be) in the sense of full-grown or mature: we are to be "perfect" or "full-grown" like the Father (Matt. 5:48) in loving both friends and enemies (Matt. 5:44-47; cf. Luke 6:36), in commitment to Christ (Matt. 19:21), in spiritual discernment (1 Cor. 2:6, 14), in attitude (1 Cor. 14:20), in knowledge of the way of salvation (Phil. 3:15), in union with Christ (Col. 1:28), in remaining true to God's will (Col. 4:12), and in being able to distinguish between good and evil (Heb. 5:14). One does not have to reach heaven before having this kind of perfection. Paul and others were already "perfect" (Phil. 3:15), though not sinless. Likewise, God's system of salvation has perfection (wholeness, completion) in its earthly processes. For example, his gifts to us are complete (James 1:17); patience or steadfastness has its "perfect" (complete) work in our lives (James 1:4); and faith is perfected or completed (the verb form here) by our works (James 2:22). Therefore, some things here in this world are "perfect" in the Biblical meaning of that word.
Our question, though, relates to 1 Cor. 13:10. What is contemplated here as becoming complete? Paul only gave us the article ("the") within adjective ("perfect"), but left the noun which they modify unstated. However, we need not search for some elusive antecedent and try to build a case from other contexts.<17> The answer is to be found in 1 Cor. 13:9, since 1 Cor. 13:9 and 1 Cor. 13:10 go together as one sentence. They present a contrast between something that is incomplete or "in part" ([@ek] [@merous]) now, but will be complete ([@teleion]) later. The identification of the "perfect" is stated precisely in the words "we know in part, and we prophecy in part" (1 Cor. 13:9). Paul's subject was the receiving and dispensing of divine knowledge -- the proclamation of the New Testament faith by inspiration!
In 1 Cor. 13:9 the verbs "know" and "prophesy" are both modified by the adverbial expression [@ek] [@merous] ("in part"). But in 1 Cor. 13:10 those verbs and their modifiers are brought together and replaced by the single substantive expression to [@ek] [@merous] ("that which is in part"). Whatever is partial in 1 Cor. 13:9 is "that" which is partial in 1 Cor. 13:10. "Prophecy" and "knowledge" (1 Cor. 13:2 and 1 Cor. 13:8) as feminine nouns need not correspond to the neuter expressions of 1 Cor. 13:10 because 1 Cor. 13:9 has changed them to verbs! This makes a difference.<18> And since to [@teleion] ("the perfect") is the counterpart to [@to] [@ek] [@merous] ("that which is in part"), it is absolutely clear that the "perfect" also refers to those same verbs -- describing the completion of inspired preaching and the consequent cessation of the spiritual gifts which enabled and confirmed that preaching. Jesus had told the apostles that the Holy Spirit would guide them into "all the truth" (John 16:13). But at the time of Paul's letter the truth had not been fully received and proclaimed. However, the time was not far away -- within the lifetime of those apostles -- that revelation would draw to a close. Finally, "that which is perfect" had come when the apostle John laid down his pen and finished "the words of the prophecy" (Rev. 22:18-21).
INTRODUCTION
An analysis of 1 Cor. 13:8-13 is extremely important with regard to the subject of spiritual gifts since the passage clearly foretells their demise. Knowing the termination point for charismatic activity heavily depends on a proper understanding of these verses and the identification of "that which is perfect" (1 Cor. 13:10) in particular. Proponents of current charismatic claims must, of necessity, correlate the "perfect" with the end of earthly life. Yet, strangely, many exegetes of the passage who deny the genuineness of modern claims for spiritual gifts still see the reference point of the "perfect" as future to our time. Others see the passage as "ambiguous" at best.<1> In so doing, they overlook the usefulness of this passage in militating against the current Pentecostal persuasion. It is our hope that the following exegesis will show that, rather than being ambiguous, these verses are crucial and definitive for the question of the time-frame of the cessation of spiritual gifts.<2>
SPIRITUAL GIFTS WERE TO CEASE
Supernatural endowments from the Holy Spirit were foretold by Jesus (Mark 16:17-18) and described as fact in the New Testament (Mark 16:20; Acts 2:1-4,43; 8:6; 10:44-46; 14:3; Heb. 2:3-4; etc.). Each of these phenomena was called a "spiritual gift" (Rom. 1:11), and Paul specifies nine such gifts operating in the first-century church (1 Cor. 12:4-11). All of them were miraculous.<3>
Paul then discusses further some of "the greater gifts" as he contrasts them with love as their superior (1 Cor. 12:31--13:7). He singles out tongues, prophecy, (inspired) knowledge and (supernatural) faith.<4> Three of these gifts (representing all of them) are further contrasted with the representative Christian virtues of faith, hope and love (1 Cor. 13:8-13). The contrast has to do with their duration. As long as this earth shall last, faith, hope and love will abide (1 Cor. 13:13) whereas spiritual gifts such as those producing "prophecies," "tongues" and "knowledge" would "cease" or "be done away" (1 Cor. 13:8). The termination of the gifts would be "when that which is perfect is come" (1 Cor. 13:10).
WHAT "PERFECT" DOES NOT MEAN
Some have supposed that Jesus is "the perfect" that will "come" at the end of time.<5> However, the Greek construction denies this possibility for the word "perfect" is neuter, which cannot refer to the mature Christ. The neuter terms "infant" ([@brefos]) or "child" ([@paidion]) were used for all youngsters, including Jesus (Luke 2:16-17). So the baby Jesus would naturally be called "the holy thing" (Luke 1:35; see also Matt. 1:20). But upon reaching puberty Jesus, like all others, was referred to in masculine terms. He is a person, not a thing -- a "he who," not a "that which." 1 John 1:1,3 is no exception because there the writer refers not to Jesus himself but to things about or "concerning" him that were "heard," "seen," "beheld" and "handled."<6>
Others have thought Paul refers to a "perfect" state of existence which will "come" to us in heaven at the dawn of eternity. Thus, Adam Clarke, for example, refers to "the state of eternal blessedness."<7> Lenski refers to "the complete state" which is reached at "the Parousia of Christ."<8> And many others similarly interpret.<9> Even some brethren have either suggested or maintained this view.<10> However, heaven or eternity is not mentioned anywhere in this context. The chapter discusses Christian virtues and gifts in this world where poverty, suffering and evil abound (1 Cor. 13:1-8). It contrasts the temporary gifts with permanent characteristics as far as this life is concerned. The word "perfect" does not here or anywhere else in the Bible refer to the sinless, flawless state of heaven.
Still others have affirmed that Christian maturity -- or love as its chief element -- is "that which is perfect." Among our brethren, Carroll Osburn has taken the former view and Jim McGuiggan the latter. These arguments ignore the immediate context (a contrast in duration -- 1 Cor. 13:8-13, rather than value -- 1 Cor. 13:1-7), and they also ignore the definitive statement of 1 Cor. 13:9-10 (a contrast in quantity).<11> Osburn goes all the way back to 1 Cor. 2:6 for the premise of his maturity argument, completely missing the point of 1 Cor. 13:9-10 in his unsuccessful attempt to define the contrast in terms of quality (maturity versus imperfection) rather than quantity (totality versus partiality).<12>
McGuiggan argues long for "perfect" love but likewise misses the whole point. He asks why God would speak of completed revelation in connection with the cessation of gifts.<13> The answer is to be found in the purpose of the gifts in the first place -- confirmation of the Word while it was being delivered via inspired preaching! Both of these writers seem to think that spiritual gifts were for the purpose of maturation in love. But notice: (1) The gifts of prophecy and knowledge were for the purpose of providing information (1 Cor. 13:2; 14:3-6,19); (2) Tongues were for a sign to unbelievers (1 Cor. 14:22), not to mature the love of Christians; (3) The spiritual gifts of the Corinthians were contributing to personal immaturity, not maturity (1 Cor. 3:1; 14:20); (4) Spiritual gifts were needed because Christians were still "childish" in the level of knowledge (1 Cor. 13:11), not in attitude; (5) Paul was certainly mature but he still had spiritual gifts (1 Cor. 2:1-6) and spoke in tongues more than the Corinthians (1 Cor. 14:18); (6) People today are just as immature and unloving as ever (maybe more so), yet spiritual gifts have ceased! Why?
Getting Christians to love one another was neither the sole purpose of the Lord's dealings with his people nor of Paul's letter to the Corinthians. Beginning with 1 Cor. 7:1 Paul answers questions which they had raised. In 1 Cor. 12--14 it was his aim to give information (1 Cor. 12:1) regarding the purpose, diversification, estimation, regulation, and (in 1 Cor. 13:8-13) termination of spiritual gifts. Nowhere does Paul so much as hint that supernatural gifts were given to the church because Christians were unable to love each other! He wants them to have love and gifts (1 Cor. 12:31; 14:1).
WHAT "PERFECT" DOES MEAN
The Greek word translated "perfect" ([@teleios]) means "having attained the end or purpose, complete."<14> It may be applied to people with the meaning of "full-grown, mature, adult,"<15> being "perfect and entire, lacking in nothing" (James 1:4). Or it may refer to the finality of anything which has been "brought to its end, finished."<16> In contrast to the oft-heard statement that "nothing in this world is perfect," let us notice how the New Testament uses this Greek word in some of its 20 occurrences.
Christians are expected to be "perfect" (and can be) in the sense of full-grown or mature: we are to be "perfect" or "full-grown" like the Father (Matt. 5:48) in loving both friends and enemies (Matt. 5:44-47; cf. Luke 6:36), in commitment to Christ (Matt. 19:21), in spiritual discernment (1 Cor. 2:6, 14), in attitude (1 Cor. 14:20), in knowledge of the way of salvation (Phil. 3:15), in union with Christ (Col. 1:28), in remaining true to God's will (Col. 4:12), and in being able to distinguish between good and evil (Heb. 5:14). One does not have to reach heaven before having this kind of perfection. Paul and others were already "perfect" (Phil. 3:15), though not sinless. Likewise, God's system of salvation has perfection (wholeness, completion) in its earthly processes. For example, his gifts to us are complete (James 1:17); patience or steadfastness has its "perfect" (complete) work in our lives (James 1:4); and faith is perfected or completed (the verb form here) by our works (James 2:22). Therefore, some things here in this world are "perfect" in the Biblical meaning of that word.
Our question, though, relates to 1 Cor. 13:10. What is contemplated here as becoming complete? Paul only gave us the article ("the") within adjective ("perfect"), but left the noun which they modify unstated. However, we need not search for some elusive antecedent and try to build a case from other contexts.<17> The answer is to be found in 1 Cor. 13:9, since 1 Cor. 13:9 and 1 Cor. 13:10 go together as one sentence. They present a contrast between something that is incomplete or "in part" ([@ek] [@merous]) now, but will be complete ([@teleion]) later. The identification of the "perfect" is stated precisely in the words "we know in part, and we prophecy in part" (1 Cor. 13:9). Paul's subject was the receiving and dispensing of divine knowledge -- the proclamation of the New Testament faith by inspiration!
In 1 Cor. 13:9 the verbs "know" and "prophesy" are both modified by the adverbial expression [@ek] [@merous] ("in part"). But in 1 Cor. 13:10 those verbs and their modifiers are brought together and replaced by the single substantive expression to [@ek] [@merous] ("that which is in part"). Whatever is partial in 1 Cor. 13:9 is "that" which is partial in 1 Cor. 13:10. "Prophecy" and "knowledge" (1 Cor. 13:2 and 1 Cor. 13:8) as feminine nouns need not correspond to the neuter expressions of 1 Cor. 13:10 because 1 Cor. 13:9 has changed them to verbs! This makes a difference.<18> And since to [@teleion] ("the perfect") is the counterpart to [@to] [@ek] [@merous] ("that which is in part"), it is absolutely clear that the "perfect" also refers to those same verbs -- describing the completion of inspired preaching and the consequent cessation of the spiritual gifts which enabled and confirmed that preaching. Jesus had told the apostles that the Holy Spirit would guide them into "all the truth" (John 16:13). But at the time of Paul's letter the truth had not been fully received and proclaimed. However, the time was not far away -- within the lifetime of those apostles -- that revelation would draw to a close. Finally, "that which is perfect" had come when the apostle John laid down his pen and finished "the words of the prophecy" (Rev. 22:18-21).
Upvote
0