Hey guys,
I'm reading through the book of Exodus at the moment and last night while I was doing my quiet time, I ran into ths interesting passage....
Exodus 4:24 "At a lodging place on the way, the Lord met Moses and was about to kill him. But Zipporath took a flint knife, cut off her son's foreskin and touched Moses' feet with it. "Surely you are a bridegroom of blood to me," she said. So the Lord let him alone." (At that time she said "bridegroom of blood," referring to circumcision.)
At that time, Moses was returning to Egypt to warn Pharoah and request the freedom of the Israelites who were under bondage there. (Now we all know that Moses griped and complained to God before he decided to go). I know that in jewish law, circumsicion at the time was a requirement of God's covenant with Israel. But here's the thing, Moses spent most of his life in Pharaoh's palace and in the Midianite desert, therefore he was not or may have not been familiar with God's laws. In my life application Bible, it states that "God's covenant with Israel had not been actively carried out for over 400 years." If Moses was ignorant of this requirement and the consequences that would happen if he did not carry through with circumsicion, then why would God try to kill him? I mean, if Moses didn't know, then he didn't know! Why didnn't God remind him of the circumsicion requirement?
I found this particular passage to be of interest and so I am curious to see what your responses would be.
Any takers here??
I'm reading through the book of Exodus at the moment and last night while I was doing my quiet time, I ran into ths interesting passage....
Exodus 4:24 "At a lodging place on the way, the Lord met Moses and was about to kill him. But Zipporath took a flint knife, cut off her son's foreskin and touched Moses' feet with it. "Surely you are a bridegroom of blood to me," she said. So the Lord let him alone." (At that time she said "bridegroom of blood," referring to circumcision.)
At that time, Moses was returning to Egypt to warn Pharoah and request the freedom of the Israelites who were under bondage there. (Now we all know that Moses griped and complained to God before he decided to go). I know that in jewish law, circumsicion at the time was a requirement of God's covenant with Israel. But here's the thing, Moses spent most of his life in Pharaoh's palace and in the Midianite desert, therefore he was not or may have not been familiar with God's laws. In my life application Bible, it states that "God's covenant with Israel had not been actively carried out for over 400 years." If Moses was ignorant of this requirement and the consequences that would happen if he did not carry through with circumsicion, then why would God try to kill him? I mean, if Moses didn't know, then he didn't know! Why didnn't God remind him of the circumsicion requirement?
I found this particular passage to be of interest and so I am curious to see what your responses would be.
Any takers here??