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Roustalski

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I eventually want to take this document and pass it along to others once the answers have been given. I'm doing this for myself, but I know several people that I talk to frequently who have a lot of the same concerns and do not believe in Jesus. I want to be able to at least give something of an answer so I can get a foot in the door and possibly minister to them.

I've chosen to tackle these 3 questions first, and then we can move onto others after these have been answered. I'm looking for a biblical perspective from you guys, because I can get every other kind of perspective immaginable from the internet. So, if you would please, back your stuff up with verses and explain what you think those verses mean. I would also prefer that the answers be an explanation of why rather than an attempt to make me afraid to do something. Quoting a verse is great, but explain why you think it means something rather than just taking it as 100% unmistakeable (See question 1).

I understand there needs to be a balance in everything. Like you said this morning, where parts of the bible were meant to be taken as cut and dry, others were meant to be left open ended for the Holy Spirit to deal with us. I also realize that some of my questions may not have an answer as we just flat out don't know, but I would appreciate that said for that question. If you don't know, say you don't know and pass the question along to someone you think might know and if we go all the way up the chain and the answer is that none of us know, then that will be fine.

I need help as to where that balance line is drawn. On one hand I feel like I will be playing the devil's advocate, while on the other hand, I know I want these questions answered for myself as well. I don't believe that some of these questions are important for myself and my salvation, but I would contend that they are, because if an unbeliever came to me with these, and asked for answers, I would have to say I don't know - and shouldn't I have asked these questions before I got saved in the first place? I didn't know to ask them...

So, here we go.
1. Do you believe that the bible has no errors? Do you believe that it is just the original languages that are inerrant? If the bible needs to be "fixed," then why did God allow it to be broken? With the internet and a little research on my own through search programs written by myself, it is very easy to find discrepancies like these (Only 4 examples listed, but if you want more, let me know):
e.g.



  • 2nd samuel 10:18 - "And the Syrians fled before Israel; and David slew of the Syrians the men of seven hundred chariots, and forty thousand horsemen, and wounded Shobach the commander of their army, so that he died there."
  • 1st Chronicles 19:18 - "And the Syrians fled before Israel; and David slew of the Syrians the men of seven thousand chariots, and forty thousand foot soldiers, and killed also Shophach the commander of their army."
e.g.

  • Genesis 15:13 - "Then the LORD said to Abram, "Know of a surety that your descendants will be sojourners in a land that is not theirs, and will be slaves there, and they will be oppressed for four hundred years;"
  • Exodus 12:41 - "And at the end of four hundred and thirty years, on that very day, all the hosts of the LORD went out from the land of Egypt."
e.g.

  • Deuteronomy 10 - "6 (The people of Israel journeyed from Be-er'oth Bene-ja'akan to Mose'rah. There Aaron died, and there he was buried; and his son Elea'zar ministered as priest in his stead. 7 From there they journeyed to Gud'godah, and from Gud'godah to Jot'bathah..." (Aaron died BEFORE Jot'Bathah)
  • Numbers 33 - "32 And they set out from Bene-ja'akan, and encamped at Hor-haggid'gad. 33 And they set out from Hor-haggid'gad, and encamped at Jot'bathah... 33-37... 38 And Aaron the priest went up Mount Hor at the command of the LORD, and died there..." (Aaron died AFTER Jot'Bathah)
e.g.

  • Ephesians 2:13-15 - "But now in Christ Jesus you who once were far off have been brought near in the blood of Christ. 14 For he is our peace, who has made us both one, and has broken down the dividing wall of hostility, 15 by abolishing in his flesh the law of commandments and ordinances, that he might create in himself one new man in place of the two, so making peace, 16 and might reconcile us both to God in one body through the cross, thereby bringing the hostility to an end."
  • Matthew 5:17-19 - "Think not that I have come to abolish the law and the prophets; I have come not to abolish them but to fulfil them. 18 For truly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, not an iota, not a dot, will pass from the law until all is accomplished. 19 Whoever then relaxes one of the least of these commandments and teaches men so, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven; but he who does them and teaches them shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven."
2. Why are certain Jewish ritualistic laws of the old testament, such as Deuteronomy 14 (The entire chapter) and (lots of) others, ignored by Christians, yet other laws, such as the sex laws in Leviticus 18 (The entire chapter) not ignored by Christians? What is the meaning of Sexual Immorality ("inappropriate contenteia" in greek); What does it include? Verses 6-15 in Leviticus 18 (over half) are rules against incest, yet Adam (Genesis 3:20 - "Adam named his wife Eve, because she would become the mother of all the living" and Genesis 4:25-26... their children had sex with who?), Noah (Genisis 8:18... Only his family left on the ark?), and Abraham (Genesis 20:11-12) all had incestuous relationships and approval from God. (maybe this should have gone under the contradiction question?)

3. What is considered profane or foul mouthed? I'll give a list of verses of what I consider relevant, and then give a little food for thought on this question.
Psalm 19:14 - Let the words of my mouth and the meditation of my heart be acceptable in thy sight, O LORD, my rock and my redeemer."
Matthew 5:37 - "Let what you say be simply 'Yes' or 'No'; anything more than this comes from evil."
Colosians 3:8-10 - "But now put them all away: anger, wrath, malice, slander, and foul talk from your mouth. 9 Do not lie to one another, seeing that you have put off the old nature with its practices 10 and have put on the new nature, which is being renewed in knowledge after the image of its creator."
Matthew 12:34-36 - "You brood of vipers! how can you speak good, when you are evil? For out of the abundance of the heart the mouth speaks. 35 The good man out of his good treasure brings forth good, and the evil man out of his evil treasure brings forth evil. 36 I tell you, on the day of judgment men will render account for every careless word they utter; 37 for by your words you will be justified, and by your words you will be condemned."

Why are people offended at profanity? If someone gets upset at something and says "HOLY COW," that might offend a person who is buddist because of they believe that cows are holy. Is it not hypocritical for one to get upset when someone else says "Jesus Christ" in a derrogatory way, but that person expects other people to not be upset over something he or she said?

We use the word dog to represent some cute little animal on four legs. The sounds "duh, ahhh, guh" form dog and those sounds don't raise any bells, but the sounds "tih, its" (TI*S) might be considered too promiscuous. Why is saying the litteral two letters "BS" ok to say and not "BULL SHI*"; or PO'ed rather than PIS*ED OFF? What about the changing of times? Back in the late 1800's and early 1900's, HUMBUG (Yes, as in scrooge) was considered to be very offensive.

The only time Jesus was recorded talking was when He was trying to teach us something. When He went in the temple busting up the merchants buying and selling (Mark 11:15), He was overturning tables and such and He yelled at them. Jesus was an insanely radical individual and in order to EXPRESS His displeasure, I'm sure He said some things to get their attention - Not just in tone, but in a way that the poeple of the time would think "Wow, He means business."

If I talk to a little dog in the kindest of voices, saying "I'm going to kill you right after I talk to you like this, and you have no clue what I mean," it will still wag its tail and want to be petted by me. If, however, I yell at the dog like I would yell at someone trying to literally kill me, saying, "I LOVE YOU WITH ALL MY HEART AND WILL NEVER DO ANYTHING TO HURT YOU!", I'm conveying a differen't expression correct? It's a contradictory expression because the tone basically nullifies the words. Why is it that our culture puts empahsis on words alone, rather than the expression, tone, and context that they are used in?

Thanks for your help!
 

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Roustalski said:
So, here we go.
1. Do you believe that the bible has no errors? Do you believe that it is just the original languages that are inerrant? If the bible needs to be "fixed," then why did God allow it to be broken?

I don't know if errant/inerrant is the best way of thinking of the Bible. I think it helps to take each book on its own without running one against the other for inconsistencies (as you point out) or flat-out factual errors (the c/d ratio that is not pi; the 4-footed insects of the kashrut laws...). I find the inconsistencies and errors insignificant, because I like to look at the themes of the books...God's relationship with people, as weird and contradictory and full of conflict and reconciliation and redemption as all good relationships are...

2. Why are certain Jewish ritualistic laws of the old testament, such as Deuteronomy 14 (The entire chapter) and (lots of) others, ignored by Christians, yet other laws, such as the sex laws in Leviticus 18 (The entire chapter) not ignored by Christians? What is the meaning of Sexual Immorality ("inappropriate contenteia" in greek); What does it include? Verses 6-15 in Leviticus 18 (over half) are rules against incest, yet Adam (Genesis 3:20 - "Adam named his wife Eve, because she would become the mother of all the living" and Genesis 4:25-26... their children had sex with who?), Noah (Genisis 8:18... Only his family left on the ark?), and Abraham (Genesis 20:11-12) all had incestuous relationships and approval from God. (maybe this should have gone under the contradiction question?)

The incest laws were not given until Sinai. Until then, we would assume that the Noahide laws and the covenantal circumcision would have been applicable to the descendants of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob.

I think you answered your own question about the profanity and foul mouthed.
 
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ebia

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Roustalski said:
[snipped several paragraphs of info
Too long.


So, here we go.
1. Do you believe that the bible has no errors?
No.

Do you believe that it is just the original languages that are inerrant?
Inerrent is not a useful idea.

If the bible needs to be "fixed," then why did God allow it to be broken?
It doesn't need to be fixed because it isn't broken. Being error free does not necessarly make something better, and having errors does not necessarily make something worse. It all depends on the nature of the error and the intended purpose of the thing.

2. Why are certain Jewish ritualistic laws of the old testament, such as Deuteronomy 14 (The entire chapter) and (lots of) others, ignored by Christians, yet other laws, such as the sex laws in Leviticus 18 (The entire chapter) not ignored by Christians?
Which Christians?

What is the meaning of Sexual Immorality ("inappropriate contenteia" in greek); What does it include? Verses 6-15 in Leviticus 18 (over half) are rules against incest, yet Adam (Genesis 3:20 - "Adam named his wife Eve, because she would become the mother of all the living" and Genesis 4:25-26... their children had sex with who?), Noah (Genisis 8:18... Only his family left on the ark?), and Abraham (Genesis 20:11-12) all had incestuous relationships and approval from God. (maybe this should have gone under the contradiction question?)
Yep.

The bible is not best treated as a giant jigsaw puzzle of do's and dont's all mixed up for us to try to unjumble and decypher. It's a library of books describing people's encounter with God, that is useful for developing our encounter with God.
 
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holo

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ebia said:
The bible is not best treated as a giant jigsaw puzzle of do's and dont's all mixed up for us to try to unjumble and decypher. It's a library of books describing people's encounter with God, that is useful for developing our encounter with God.
My thoughts exactly.

Care to elaborate on how you came to this view? If you're anything like the average christian, this certainly isn't the view that's imposed and expected of you.
 
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Roustalski

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ebia said:
Too long.



No.


Inerrent is not a useful idea.


It doesn't need to be fixed because it isn't broken. Being error free does not necessarly make something better, and having errors does not necessarily make something worse. It all depends on the nature of the error and the intended purpose of the thing.


Which Christians?


Yep.

The bible is not best treated as a giant jigsaw puzzle of do's and dont's all mixed up for us to try to unjumble and decypher. It's a library of books describing people's encounter with God, that is useful for developing our encounter with God.

I'm new to this, so I may not be able to hang if we start debating. I was just asking questions to be honest because I want to hear answers of other people.

Having said that, I'm not sure if your questions are rhetorical or if I'm actually supposed to respond - so here we go! :D

"Which Christians?"

I would say anyone who believes pre-marital sex as a sin, who thinks sexual immorality is the end-all, be-all answer, when the meaning of those two words is very confusing to me - hence the question, "What is the meaning of Sexual Immorality ("inappropriate contenteia" in greek); What does it include?"

Since I think you are agreeing with me by saying that it goes under the contradiction question, you are saying that sexual immorailty doesn't cover premarital sex, and the like? I hate making generalizations, so if you could clarify what you mean when you say yes, it is a contradiction? What does it contradict, what parts of sexual immorality covers what was in Leviticus, if anything?

I think I'm rambling and not being clear, so I'll stop here.
 
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ebia

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Roustalski said:
"Which Christians?"
I was just making the point that your question seemed to be asking for "THE Christian answer", when there is a whole spectrum of Christian opinion on the Mosaic Law and on sexuality.


Since I think you are agreeing with me by saying that it goes under the contradiction question, you are saying that sexual immorailty doesn't cover premarital sex, and the like? I hate making generalizations, so if you could clarify what you mean when you say yes, it is a contradiction?
Just that the bible repeatedly contradicts itself on issues of sexuality. On polygamy, on incest, on divorce, etc. Of course someone will come along soon and give contrived reasons why it doesn't.
 
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ebia

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holo said:
My thoughts exactly.

Care to elaborate on how you came to this view? If you're anything like the average christian, this certainly isn't the view that's imposed and expected of you.
Well, the Anglican Church isn't heavy about imposing views (outside the extreme conservative parishes/dioceses), and I'm not very good at listening to sermons. Nor am I the kind of person who accepts what they are told - I like to work stuff out for myself with reference to others.

Add to that becoming a teacher myself, and a lot of time spent on a Christian forum (not this one) where those sorts of ideas can be discussed without being accused of being a handmaiden of satan.
 
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Adam2112

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Well, to give some insight here I go.

First off, can you read or speak hebrew or greek. If so get your hands on the orginal bibles, the old testament being in hebrew and the new being in greek. Read what you thank are flaws. There are no flaws in the bible, it`s only what translations have created. Human error is the greatest error, not the Lords. He gave these books to mankind to write, yet with all the translations, there is going to be flaws. Look at this. Get your hands on a english translation bible called The Book and compare it to the KJV. Look at Corinithians in both. One verse in the KJV talks of prositutes, yet the Book talks of " male prostitues ". If you investigate for yourself you will find what you are looking for.

Second, Jews have a lot in common with christians whether people believe it or not. Of course, are main differences is that we believe in Christ and they don`t see him as a saviour, and that we don`t hold all holidays like they do. But we do ignore they`re laws. If we referred to the laws of the old covennant, we would have some major problems today.
 
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holo

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ebia said:
Well, the Anglican Church isn't heavy about imposing views (outside the extreme conservative parishes/dioceses), and I'm not very good at listening to sermons. Nor am I the kind of person who accepts what they are told - I like to work stuff out for myself with reference to others.

Add to that becoming a teacher myself, and a lot of time spent on a Christian forum (not this one) where those sorts of ideas can be discussed without being accused of being a handmaiden of satan.
Sounds good. If you find me worthy, I'd love a forum where I could say, and ask, the things I want without fear of being labeled a heretic and false teacher.
 
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humbledbyhim

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Roustalski said:
I eventually want to take this document and pass it along to others once the answers have been given. I'm doing this for myself, but I know several people that I talk to frequently who have a lot of the same concerns and do not believe in Jesus. I want to be able to at least give something of an answer so I can get a foot in the door and possibly minister to them.

I've chosen to tackle these 3 questions first, and then we can move onto others after these have been answered. I'm looking for a biblical perspective from you guys, because I can get every other kind of perspective immaginable from the internet. So, if you would please, back your stuff up with verses and explain what you think those verses mean. I would also prefer that the answers be an explanation of why rather than an attempt to make me afraid to do something. Quoting a verse is great, but explain why you think it means something rather than just taking it as 100% unmistakeable (See question 1).

I understand there needs to be a balance in everything. Like you said this morning, where parts of the bible were meant to be taken as cut and dry, others were meant to be left open ended for the Holy Spirit to deal with us. I also realize that some of my questions may not have an answer as we just flat out don't know, but I would appreciate that said for that question. If you don't know, say you don't know and pass the question along to someone you think might know and if we go all the way up the chain and the answer is that none of us know, then that will be fine.

I need help as to where that balance line is drawn. On one hand I feel like I will be playing the devil's advocate, while on the other hand, I know I want these questions answered for myself as well. I don't believe that some of these questions are important for myself and my salvation, but I would contend that they are, because if an unbeliever came to me with these, and asked for answers, I would have to say I don't know - and shouldn't I have asked these questions before I got saved in the first place? I didn't know to ask them...

So, here we go.
1. Do you believe that the bible has no errors? Do you believe that it is just the original languages that are inerrant? If the bible needs to be "fixed," then why did God allow it to be broken? With the internet and a little research on my own through search programs written by myself, it is very easy to find discrepancies like these (Only 4 examples listed, but if you want more, let me know):
e.g.

  • 2nd samuel 10:18 - "And the Syrians fled before Israel; and David slew of the Syrians the men of seven hundred chariots, and forty thousand horsemen, and wounded Shobach the commander of their army, so that he died there."
  • 1st Chronicles 19:18 - "And the Syrians fled before Israel; and David slew of the Syrians the men of seven thousand chariots, and forty thousand foot soldiers, and killed also Shophach the commander of their army."
e.g.
  • Genesis 15:13 - "Then the LORD said to Abram, "Know of a surety that your descendants will be sojourners in a land that is not theirs, and will be slaves there, and they will be oppressed for four hundred years;"
  • Exodus 12:41 - "And at the end of four hundred and thirty years, on that very day, all the hosts of the LORD went out from the land of Egypt."
e.g.
  • Deuteronomy 10 - "6 (The people of Israel journeyed from Be-er'oth Bene-ja'akan to Mose'rah. There Aaron died, and there he was buried; and his son Elea'zar ministered as priest in his stead. 7 From there they journeyed to Gud'godah, and from Gud'godah to Jot'bathah..." (Aaron died BEFORE Jot'Bathah)
  • Numbers 33 - "32 And they set out from Bene-ja'akan, and encamped at Hor-haggid'gad. 33 And they set out from Hor-haggid'gad, and encamped at Jot'bathah... 33-37... 38 And Aaron the priest went up Mount Hor at the command of the LORD, and died there..." (Aaron died AFTER Jot'Bathah)
e.g.
  • Ephesians 2:13-15 - "But now in Christ Jesus you who once were far off have been brought near in the blood of Christ. 14 For he is our peace, who has made us both one, and has broken down the dividing wall of hostility, 15 by abolishing in his flesh the law of commandments and ordinances, that he might create in himself one new man in place of the two, so making peace, 16 and might reconcile us both to God in one body through the cross, thereby bringing the hostility to an end."
  • Matthew 5:17-19 - "Think not that I have come to abolish the law and the prophets; I have come not to abolish them but to fulfil them. 18 For truly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, not an iota, not a dot, will pass from the law until all is accomplished. 19 Whoever then relaxes one of the least of these commandments and teaches men so, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven; but he who does them and teaches them shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven."
2. Why are certain Jewish ritualistic laws of the old testament, such as Deuteronomy 14 (The entire chapter) and (lots of) others, ignored by Christians, yet other laws, such as the sex laws in Leviticus 18 (The entire chapter) not ignored by Christians? What is the meaning of Sexual Immorality ("inappropriate contenteia" in greek); What does it include? Verses 6-15 in Leviticus 18 (over half) are rules against incest, yet Adam (Genesis 3:20 - "Adam named his wife Eve, because she would become the mother of all the living" and Genesis 4:25-26... their children had sex with who?), Noah (Genisis 8:18... Only his family left on the ark?), and Abraham (Genesis 20:11-12) all had incestuous relationships and approval from God. (maybe this should have gone under the contradiction question?)

3. What is considered profane or foul mouthed? I'll give a list of verses of what I consider relevant, and then give a little food for thought on this question.
Psalm 19:14 - Let the words of my mouth and the meditation of my heart be acceptable in thy sight, O LORD, my rock and my redeemer."
Matthew 5:37 - "Let what you say be simply 'Yes' or 'No'; anything more than this comes from evil."
Colosians 3:8-10 - "But now put them all away: anger, wrath, malice, slander, and foul talk from your mouth. 9 Do not lie to one another, seeing that you have put off the old nature with its practices 10 and have put on the new nature, which is being renewed in knowledge after the image of its creator."
Matthew 12:34-36 - "You brood of vipers! how can you speak good, when you are evil? For out of the abundance of the heart the mouth speaks. 35 The good man out of his good treasure brings forth good, and the evil man out of his evil treasure brings forth evil. 36 I tell you, on the day of judgment men will render account for every careless word they utter; 37 for by your words you will be justified, and by your words you will be condemned."

Why are people offended at profanity? If someone gets upset at something and says "HOLY COW," that might offend a person who is buddist because of they believe that cows are holy. Is it not hypocritical for one to get upset when someone else says "Jesus Christ" in a derrogatory way, but that person expects other people to not be upset over something he or she said?

We use the word dog to represent some cute little animal on four legs. The sounds "duh, ahhh, guh" form dog and those sounds don't raise any bells, but the sounds "tih, its" (TI*S) might be considered too promiscuous. Why is saying the litteral two letters "BS" ok to say and not "BULL SHI*"; or PO'ed rather than PIS*ED OFF? What about the changing of times? Back in the late 1800's and early 1900's, HUMBUG (Yes, as in scrooge) was considered to be very offensive.

The only time Jesus was recorded talking was when He was trying to teach us something. When He went in the temple busting up the merchants buying and selling (Mark 11:15), He was overturning tables and such and He yelled at them. Jesus was an insanely radical individual and in order to EXPRESS His displeasure, I'm sure He said some things to get their attention - Not just in tone, but in a way that the poeple of the time would think "Wow, He means business."

If I talk to a little dog in the kindest of voices, saying "I'm going to kill you right after I talk to you like this, and you have no clue what I mean," it will still wag its tail and want to be petted by me. If, however, I yell at the dog like I would yell at someone trying to literally kill me, saying, "I LOVE YOU WITH ALL MY HEART AND WILL NEVER DO ANYTHING TO HURT YOU!", I'm conveying a differen't expression correct? It's a contradictory expression because the tone basically nullifies the words. Why is it that our culture puts empahsis on words alone, rather than the expression, tone, and context that they are used in?

Thanks for your help!
In regards to the OP. I took the liberty of looking up the 700 vs. 7000 and footmen vs horsemen issue. First, let me say that when I come across issues like this I look through every commentary that i can find, historical references etc. to find an answer. The fact is that I thought thath this issue above was insurmountable and was ready to give in until I decided to pray to God on and off over the course of 2 hrs about it. I then looked for an explanation, and came across a good one that I won't put here because it is not my own. Also, it may be good practice for you to do some praying, serious praying, and research on the issue to find an answer that suits you. However, the explanation that I found satisfied me. Now, I'mthe type of person who will go ato all lengths to find an explanation, because I believe that God placed in me a belief that the Bible, in its original translation, is flawless. I will ask a pastor, consult a commentary, and definitely pray. Until I find something that is just absolutely ridiculously inexcusable, I will continue to be that way. One thing that I will say is that people see things differently. As far as profanity is concerned, the bible says to do things decently and in order. You will only get the attention of some people through decency and order. Also, Jesus didn't say anything profane, he picked up a whip. (that was enough right there) Finally, I don't remember Jesus yelling anything at the people who killed or tried to kill him, nor Paul. (Unless it was the Gospel that they yelled)
 
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Roustalski

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ebia said:
I was just making the point that your question seemed to be asking for "THE Christian answer", when there is a whole spectrum of Christian opinion on the Mosaic Law and on sexuality.



Just that the bible repeatedly contradicts itself on issues of sexuality. On polygamy, on incest, on divorce, etc. Of course someone will come along soon and give contrived reasons why it doesn't.

So what do you believe about those subjects, if you dont mind me asking? That is a sincere question, I'm not doing it to trap you with somethin you say, honest :)
 
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Enoch7

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If you read anything about how the Bible came to be, anyone can see that it was not a perfect collection. The Bible was not always written, in fact the stories of Jesus were never recorded until about 65 AD, 35 years after Jesus died. Most of the stories were passed down orally, so you have to understand that this is a pretty rough transition. Not only would myths and legends get mixed up in the stories, but some people did it intentionally for political or financial gain. In fact, there are tons of writings that never made it into the Bible, namely: the Gospel of St. Thomas, the Gospel of Nicodemus, the Infancy of Christ, the Book of Enoch, the list goes on and on. And also, if you read the Catholic Bible compared to the Lutheran, you'll see that the Catholic have seven (at least I'm pretty sure it's seven) extra books called "The Apocrypha."

Overall it literally took a thousand years for the Bible to get completely put together. Books, verses, and passages were torn out, added in, turned around, everything you can think of. They had to get rid of the heresy, or anything questionable or paradoxal.

Basically, when you read the Bible, you are reading the purest of all scripture established. I see the Bible as very valid due to it's message and philosophical significance -- but it would be pretty hard to consider it "historical." Just read anything about how the Bible came to be, it'll tell you the same thing I have.

Is it God's written word? Sure, you can believe that. Nothing's stopping you from having faith in that. I don't, personally, think that God actually wrote the Bible. I think that goodhearted loving men wrote it (1 John 4:8 "God is love") and since God is "love" then arguably it's true that these men were inspired by God -- because they were inspired by love.

i am tired...
 
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