OldShepherd
Zaqunraah
John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
_____Im sure this has been posted before but I see people like Neo keep misrepresenting it. Also I want to post the commentary by A. T. Robertson. Robertson taught N.T. Greek, at the post grad. Level, for 47 years. He wrote over forty books, including a 1200 page Greek grammar, which took 26 years to complete, and a six volume exegesis and commentary, Word Pictures in the New Testament, from which I will be quoting. Now if Neo or any other of the wannabe Bible experts can match these qualifications, then let them produce their credentials and refute Robertson.
{In the beginning} (\en archêi\). \Archê\ is definite, though anarthrous like our at home, in town, and the similar Hebrew _be resh1th_ in #Ge 1:1. But Westcott notes that here John carries our thoughts beyond the beginning of creation in time to eternity. There is no argument here to prove the existence of God any more than in Genesis. It is simply assumed. Either God exists and is the Creator of the universe as scientists like Eddington and Jeans assume or matter is eternal or it has come out of nothing. {Was} (\ên\). Three times in this sentence John uses this imperfect of \eimi\ to be which conveys no idea of origin for God or for the Logos, simply continuous existence.
Quite a different verb (\egeneto\, became) appears in verse #14 for the beginning of the Incarnation of the Logos. See the distinction sharply drawn in #8:58 "before Abraham came (\genesthai\) I am" (\eimi\, timeless existence). {The Word} (\ho logos\). \Logos\ is from \legô\, old word in Homer to lay by, to collect, to put words side by side, to speak, to express an opinion. \Logos\ is common for reason as well as speech. Heracl1tus used it for the principle which controls the universe. The Stoics employed it for the soul of the world (\anima mundi\) and Marcus Aurelius used \spermatikos logos\ for the generative principle in nature. The Hebrew _memra_ was used in the Targums for the manifestation of God like the Angel of Jehovah and the Wisdom of God in #Pr 8:23.
Dr. J. Rendel Harris thinks that there was a lost wisdom book that combined phrases in Proverbs and in the Wisdom of Solomon which John used for his Prologue (_The Origin of the _Prologue to St. John_, p. 43) which he has undertaken to reproduce. At any rate Johns standpoint is that of the Old Testament and not that of the Stoics nor even of Philo who uses the term \Logos\, but not Johns conception of personal pre-existence. The term \Logos\ is applied to Christ only in #Joh 1:1,14; Re 19:13; 1Jo 1:1 "concerning the Word of life" (an incidental argument for identity of authorship). There is a possible personification of "the Word of God" in #Heb 4:12. But the personal pre-existence of Christ is taught by Paul (#2Co 8:9; Php 2:6; Col 1:17) and in #Heb 1:2 and in #Joh 17:5. This term suits Johns purpose better than \sophia\ (wisdom) and is his answer to the Gnostics who either denied the actual humanity of Christ (Docetic Gnostics) or who separated the \aeon\ Christ from the man Jesus (Cerinthian Gnostics).
The pre-existent Logos "became flesh" (\sarx egeneto\, verse #14) and by this phrase John answered both heresies at once. {With God} (\pros ton theon\). Though existing eternally with God the Logos was in perfect fellowship with God. \Pros\ with the accusative presents a plane of equality and intimacy, face to face with each other. In #1Jo 2:1 we have a like use of \pros"We have a Paraclete with the Father" (\paraklêton echomen pros ton patera\).
See \prosôpon pros prosôpon\ (face to face, #1Co 13:12), a triple use of \pros There is a papyrus example of \pros\ in this sense \to gnôston tês pros allêlous sunêtheias\, "the knowledge of our intimacy with one another" (M.&M., _Vocabulary_) which answers the claim of Rendel Harris, _Origin of Prologue_, p. 8) that the use of \pros\ here and in #Mr 6:3 is a mere Aramaism. It is not a classic idiom, but this is _Koiné_, not old Attic. In #Joh 17:5 John has \para soi\ the more common idiom. {And the Word was God} (\kai theos ên ho logos\). By exact and careful language John denied Sabellianism by not saying \ho theos ên ho logos That would mean that all of God was expressed in \ho logos\ and the terms would be interchangeable, each having the article. The subject is made plain by the article (\ho logos\) and the predicate without it (\theos\) just as in #Joh 4:24 \pneuma ho theos\ can only mean "God is spirit," not "spirit is God." So in #1Jo 4:16 \ho theos agapê estin\ can only mean "God is love," not "love is God" as a so-called Christian scientist would confusedly say. For the article with the predicate see Robertson, _Grammar_, pp. 767f. So in #Joh 1:14 \ho Logos sarx egeneto\, "the Word became flesh," not "the flesh became Word." Luther argues that here John disposes of Arianism also because the Logos was eternally God, fellowship of Father and Son, what Origen called the Eternal Generation of the Son (each necessary to the other). Thus in the Trinity we see personal fellowship on an equality.
_____Im sure this has been posted before but I see people like Neo keep misrepresenting it. Also I want to post the commentary by A. T. Robertson. Robertson taught N.T. Greek, at the post grad. Level, for 47 years. He wrote over forty books, including a 1200 page Greek grammar, which took 26 years to complete, and a six volume exegesis and commentary, Word Pictures in the New Testament, from which I will be quoting. Now if Neo or any other of the wannabe Bible experts can match these qualifications, then let them produce their credentials and refute Robertson.
{In the beginning} (\en archêi\). \Archê\ is definite, though anarthrous like our at home, in town, and the similar Hebrew _be resh1th_ in #Ge 1:1. But Westcott notes that here John carries our thoughts beyond the beginning of creation in time to eternity. There is no argument here to prove the existence of God any more than in Genesis. It is simply assumed. Either God exists and is the Creator of the universe as scientists like Eddington and Jeans assume or matter is eternal or it has come out of nothing. {Was} (\ên\). Three times in this sentence John uses this imperfect of \eimi\ to be which conveys no idea of origin for God or for the Logos, simply continuous existence.
Quite a different verb (\egeneto\, became) appears in verse #14 for the beginning of the Incarnation of the Logos. See the distinction sharply drawn in #8:58 "before Abraham came (\genesthai\) I am" (\eimi\, timeless existence). {The Word} (\ho logos\). \Logos\ is from \legô\, old word in Homer to lay by, to collect, to put words side by side, to speak, to express an opinion. \Logos\ is common for reason as well as speech. Heracl1tus used it for the principle which controls the universe. The Stoics employed it for the soul of the world (\anima mundi\) and Marcus Aurelius used \spermatikos logos\ for the generative principle in nature. The Hebrew _memra_ was used in the Targums for the manifestation of God like the Angel of Jehovah and the Wisdom of God in #Pr 8:23.
Dr. J. Rendel Harris thinks that there was a lost wisdom book that combined phrases in Proverbs and in the Wisdom of Solomon which John used for his Prologue (_The Origin of the _Prologue to St. John_, p. 43) which he has undertaken to reproduce. At any rate Johns standpoint is that of the Old Testament and not that of the Stoics nor even of Philo who uses the term \Logos\, but not Johns conception of personal pre-existence. The term \Logos\ is applied to Christ only in #Joh 1:1,14; Re 19:13; 1Jo 1:1 "concerning the Word of life" (an incidental argument for identity of authorship). There is a possible personification of "the Word of God" in #Heb 4:12. But the personal pre-existence of Christ is taught by Paul (#2Co 8:9; Php 2:6; Col 1:17) and in #Heb 1:2 and in #Joh 17:5. This term suits Johns purpose better than \sophia\ (wisdom) and is his answer to the Gnostics who either denied the actual humanity of Christ (Docetic Gnostics) or who separated the \aeon\ Christ from the man Jesus (Cerinthian Gnostics).
The pre-existent Logos "became flesh" (\sarx egeneto\, verse #14) and by this phrase John answered both heresies at once. {With God} (\pros ton theon\). Though existing eternally with God the Logos was in perfect fellowship with God. \Pros\ with the accusative presents a plane of equality and intimacy, face to face with each other. In #1Jo 2:1 we have a like use of \pros"We have a Paraclete with the Father" (\paraklêton echomen pros ton patera\).
See \prosôpon pros prosôpon\ (face to face, #1Co 13:12), a triple use of \pros There is a papyrus example of \pros\ in this sense \to gnôston tês pros allêlous sunêtheias\, "the knowledge of our intimacy with one another" (M.&M., _Vocabulary_) which answers the claim of Rendel Harris, _Origin of Prologue_, p. 8) that the use of \pros\ here and in #Mr 6:3 is a mere Aramaism. It is not a classic idiom, but this is _Koiné_, not old Attic. In #Joh 17:5 John has \para soi\ the more common idiom. {And the Word was God} (\kai theos ên ho logos\). By exact and careful language John denied Sabellianism by not saying \ho theos ên ho logos That would mean that all of God was expressed in \ho logos\ and the terms would be interchangeable, each having the article. The subject is made plain by the article (\ho logos\) and the predicate without it (\theos\) just as in #Joh 4:24 \pneuma ho theos\ can only mean "God is spirit," not "spirit is God." So in #1Jo 4:16 \ho theos agapê estin\ can only mean "God is love," not "love is God" as a so-called Christian scientist would confusedly say. For the article with the predicate see Robertson, _Grammar_, pp. 767f. So in #Joh 1:14 \ho Logos sarx egeneto\, "the Word became flesh," not "the flesh became Word." Luther argues that here John disposes of Arianism also because the Logos was eternally God, fellowship of Father and Son, what Origen called the Eternal Generation of the Son (each necessary to the other). Thus in the Trinity we see personal fellowship on an equality.
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