AvgJoe said:
apenman,
These verses from James that you posted were written to Christians, people who have already accepted Jesus Christ as their Saviour. Verse 1 says, "My brothers, as believers in our glorious Lord Jesus Christ," and verse 5 says, "Listen, my dear brothers." The verses you are basing your doctrine on, as well as, the entire book of James is written to professing believers of Christ, not to unbelievers.
The application of what James is stating is not at all restricted to what we classify as a Christian or a believer. It is like saying that the sacrifice of Christ is not applicable to any person until they get saved or until they believe, which is nonsense. The fact is, if we believe that the sacrifice of Christ is only applicable to people when they believe, or get saved, then we simply do not understand the sacrifice of Christ. It is just that simple.
James 2:12-13,
"Speak and act as those who are going to be judged by the law that gives freedom,
13 because judgment without mercy will be shown to anyone who has not been merciful. Mercy triumphs over judgment!" (NIV)
The "law that gives freedom" is applicable to
all people because
all people will be judged by that law, it is on that basis that the sheep are separated from the goats. James may be speaking to "believers", but the context of the statement "because judgment without mercy will be shown to
anyone who has not been merciful", is not specifically directed at Christians.
Likewise in the KJ:
James 2:12-13, "So speak ye, and so do, as they that shall be judged by the law of liberty.
13 For he shall have judgment without mercy, that hath shewed no mercy; and mercy rejoiceth against judgment." (KJV)
It states "for he shall have judgment without mercy, that hath shewed no mercy" is again not written in context to be directed only at Christians.
Here is the scripture regarding the sacrifice of Christ being applicable to
all people.
Take a look at this verse and how it is worded:
1 John 2:2, "He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world." (NIV)
Now, let's ask the question, what is John stating here?? He says
our sins, meaning Christians, and then goes on to say, not only ours but the
whole world. If John was saying that the sacrifice of Christ was only paying the price for Christian sin, he would have stopped at the word
our. Instead, he goes beyond the context of
our, meaning Christian sin, and adds the context of
all sin, being the
whole world.