Did Jesus come as God or as a human being?

Originally posted by Karen123
Dear edpobre,

Since you seemed quite convinced the Father is above Jesus. How do you interprent John 10:30?

John 10:30: Jesus says “I and my father are one”.

First, I'm convinced that what Jesus says is a COMMAND of God, what to say and what to speak (John 2:49-50);

Second, I'm convinced that what Jesus says about himself is true. He says he is a MAN (John 8:40 and the FATHER is the ONLY true God (John 17:3). And I'm convinced this is true;

Third, I'm convinced that Jesus was SENT by God, and being HUMBLE and OBEDIENT, Jesus is of the SAME mind and spirit as the one who SENT him.

Thus, John 10:30 is Jesus'affirmation that he and the one who SENT him are of ONE mind, spirit and judgment. His judgment is like the judgment of God and his caring of the sheep is like God's caring of the sheep.

I'm sure you have head people say, "I'm ome with you on this." Haven't you?

Ed

Click to expand...

Originally posted by PrinceJeff
But Angels are created beings they cannot create.

Who says God created with somebody's help? God alone created the world and that ONE CREATOR who created EVERYTHING is the FATHER (Is. 63:16; Is. 64:8; Mal. 2:10; 1 Cor. 8:6).

Ed

Click to expand...

Originally posted by PrinceJeff
From the TEV itself.....

2 Peter 1:1 says "From Simon Peter, a servant and apostle of Jesus Christ— To those who through the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ have been given a faith as precious as ours

1 Peter 1:1 NKJV says "Blessed be the God and Father OF our Lord Jesus Christ..."

Acts 2:14 NKJV tells us that apostle Peter, standing with the eleven says, "Men of Judea and...Acts 2:22, Israel, hear these words; Jesus of Nazareth, a MAN attested by God to you by miracles, wonders and signs which God DID THROUGH him..."

John 8:40 NKJV says, "But now you seek to kill me, a MAN..."

John 17:1 NKJV says, "Father.... John 17:3, "And this is eternal life, that they may know YOU the ONLY true God..."

Considering ALL these verses my friend, do you believe that the faithful apostle Peter would still THINK and write that Jesus is God?

Titus 2:13 says "as we wait for the blessed Day we hope for, when the glory of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ will appear."

Titus 2:13 Mofatt's says "awaiting the blessed hope of the apperance of the glory OFthe great God and OFour savior Christ Jesus..."

Eph. 4:5 NKJV says, "ONE Lord, ONE faith, ONE batism,"

Eph. 4:6 NKJV says, "ONE God and Father of all who is ABOVE all..."

All these verses had ONLY ONE author, apostle Paul. Which of the above version of Titus 2:13 AGREES with the OTHER writings of apostle Paul?

Hebrews 1:8 says "About the Son, however, God said: "Your kingdom, O God, will last forever and ever! You rule over your people with justice."

Heb. 1:8 Mofatt's says, "he says of the son, 'God is thy throne for ever and ever, thy royal sceptre is the sceptre of equity."

Heb. 1:9 NKJV says, "You have loved righteousness and hated lawlessness; Therefore, God, YOUR God, has anointed YOU with the oil of gladness MORE than your COMPANIONS."

Which version of Heb. 1:8 makes it look like there are more than TWO Gods and which version doesn't?

Isaiah 43:11 says "I alone am the Lord, the only one who can save you."

Luke 1:46-47 shows Mary saying "My heart praises the Lord;
my soul is glad because of God my Savior."

But Jesus is Savior right? Yet the INC says he is not God. How can Jesus be our Savior while not being God?

[colr=blue]During the time of Mary, there was ONLY one Bible, the Old Testament and Mary was referring to God our savior written in Isaiah 43:11. She ws NOT referring to Jesus.

God MADE Jesus "Prince and SAVIOR to give repentance to Israel and forgiveness of sins" (Acts 5:31).

I used TEV verses too by the way.

And I ALSO use OTHER versions my friend. Did I say ALL of TEV is accurate translation? Am I saying that about Mofatt's, NKJV and other Bibles for that matter?

Ed

Click to expand...

Originally posted by Jahreal85
Honestly, even if you give a poll and most of the people choose what they think or believe, all or our opinions don't matter. It's what the Word of God says that is the one real deciding factor. Therefore, taking a poll is really irrelevant to the Word. The Word makes the poll void.

Basically, we all should be drawing our conclusions based on the Word alone, and what it actually says about Jesus, not on what we think. We should take God at His Word concerning what He said about Jesus because He cannot lie. Regardless of what our finite minds might tell us about what Jesus was, the Word of God is final authourity.

How right you are! If ONLY we are true to our words and truly take the WORD of God (Bible) as the final authority, we would ALL be taking of the same thing.

Yes, I believe that Jesus is all God and all man.

Are you a hypocrite or are you just plain ignorant? Aren't you aware that the WORD of God says Jesus is a MAN (John 8:40) and the FATHER is the ONLY true God (John 17:1,3)?

How come YOU (with finite mind) are saying that Jesus is all God and all man?

Ed

Click to expand...

Originally posted by Lizzi4Christ
Hebrews 1

8 But about the Son he says, "Your throne, O God, will last for ever and ever, and righteousness will be the scepter of your kingdom.

9 You have loved righteousness and hated wickedness; therefore God, your God , has set you above your companions by anointing you with the oil of joy."

God is speaking. And He calls Jesus God. Why would He do that unless there is a Trinity? Jesus is God.

What do you notice about the two verses you quoted? Verse 8 says that God is calling His son God. Are you sure this translation is accurate? Couldn't the translator have been wrong?

Take a look at verse 9. First, it makes it look like there are TWO Gods initially. One God is the Father who called His SON God. And the OTHER God is the SON who was ccalled God by the Father (verse 8). Does this agree with the rest of the Bible which says that there is ONLY ONE God?

Second, the SON who was called God (verse 8) HAS a God (YOUR God). How can the SON be the second person of the Trinity and equal to God when the first person is the second person's God?

Third, further down the verse, we see that the OTHER God (the one called God in verse 8) is anointed ABOVE his COMPANIONS. Are the OTHER God's COMPANIONS Gods or men? If Gods, how many are they? If men, why would a God have men for his companions?

Don't you think it this makes the Trinity an absurdity?

Ed

Click to expand...