Biblical Dispensation

I think it's time for you to stop making so many polls dog, I dunno what dispensation is explain it in your post

Paul must have.

1 Corinthians 9:17
For if I do this thing willingly, I have a reward: but if against my will, a dispensation of the gospel is committed unto me.

Ephesians 1:10
That in the dispensation of the fulness of times he might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven, and which are on earth; even in him:

Ephesians 3:2
If ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to you-ward:

Colossians 1:25
Whereof I am made a minister, according to the dispensation of God which is given to me for you, to fulfil the word of God;

Hahaha no no no! I didn't mean dog as in a mongrel or arch enemy of the cat dog. It's slang, I was joking around of course when I said it. Dog in slang terms means "compadre, friend. I meant that, I didn't mean to call you a filthy mutt!

Peace and GOD BLESS you too afro. And sorry I told you to stop posting polls, I snapped and shouldn't have. Life hans't been giving me lemons, I need to start making lemonade, and stop throwing the lemons at other people.

Later aforman...

PS, I used to think your Username was : afrochrist33! haha sorry again. I saw your pic and to my suprise you had no afro, so then I reread your user name and I found out is was aforchrist33.

God Bless again.

I don't really understand what Biblical dispensation is. Can someone explain it for me please?

Originally posted by ChristianPilot
I don't really understand what Biblical dispensation is. Can someone explain it for me please?

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As I understand it, it means only Jews have to obey Christ's teachings. If you aren't Jewish, you can do whatever you want because you are under grace which is, in effect, a license to sin. But if you are of the Jewish race, and you don't do everything Christ said, you go to hell.

Of course, there are slightly different flavors, and I haven't checked aforchrist's website for his particular theology.

Basically, it all comes down to "rightly dividing" the word of truth. So, what Jesus taught only applies to the Jews, John and James were written by and for Jews only, while Paul's teachings are kind of half and half.

In some versions, Jesus's teachings cease to apply for everyone once he died on the cross. Basically, from Adam to Abraham was one "dispensation." Then the conventant of circumcision was another, then from Moses to Jesus was the dispensation of the law. But Jesus's death abolishes the law, so now we are in the magic-number-of-seventh "dispensation of grace." When Jesus said he didn't come to abolish the law, he really just meant "not yet." And thus Jesus's message dies with him.

The theology was invented about 200 years ago, and relies heavily on ascribing meanings to words in the KJV which possess different shades of meaning lately than they did in 1611. Some dispensationalists further their theology with updated and deliberately slanted translations from Erasmus's Greek, with plenty of footnotes of course to help the reader along.

Of course, I myself don't agree (to put it mildly) with this system of thought, so my description might lack a certain rhetorical flourish. Perhaps someone else can hand you a better polished apple....

Originally posted by ChristianPilot
I don't really understand what Biblical dispensation is. Can someone explain it for me please?

Click to expand...

Read the Introduction
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I wonder what the dispensationalist take is on this portion of Romans 6:

We know that our old self was crucified with him, so that our sinful body might be done away with, that we might no longer be in slavery to sin. For a dead person has been absolved from sin.

If, then, we have died with Christ, we believe that we shall also live with him. We know that Christ, raised from the dead, dies no more; death no longer has power over him. As to his death, he died to sin once and for all; as to his life, he lives for God. Consequently, you too must think of yourselves as (being) dead to sin and living for God in Christ Jesus.

Therefore, sin must not reign over your mortal bodies so that you obey their desires. And do not present the parts of your bodies to sin as weapons for wickedness, but present yourselves to God as raised from the dead to life and the parts of your bodies to God as weapons for righteousness. For sin is not to have any power over you, since you are not under the law but under grace.

What then? Shall we sin because we are not under the law but under grace? Of course not! Do you not know that if you present yourselves to someone as obedient slaves, you are slaves of the one you obey, either of sin, which leads to death, or of obedience, which leads to righteousness?

But thanks be to God that, although you were once slaves of sin, you have become obedient from the heart to the pattern of teaching to which you were entrusted.

Freed from sin, you have become slaves of righteousness.

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It would seem to me a person either sins and is a slave to sin or obeys the gospel and is a slave to righteousness.

Hey all

I am familiar with the different dispensations. They are biblical. But I do not beleive in writing off parts of the bible because they were not written for us the gentiles.

We are engrafted into Isrealites by the blood of the lamb. Through faith we are saved without law that we can be engraffed into Israelites. This puts us back into the realm of the law.

Romans 3:31 Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law.

Can someone give me an example of what parts of the bible are not in effect because of the dispensation of grace? I know the ordinances are done away with, they were nailed to the cross with Jesus.

If biblical dispensation is only for the Jews, then I don't believe in it.

One thing that Christians have wrong is that Christ came to die for our sins. No He didn't. He doesn't want our sins. He came to show us that there is an alternative to this life here on Earth and in the life in eternity.

Christ didn't come for Christians. He didn't come for the 'chosen'. He didn't come to condemn any culture, government or religion. He came because God loves us and wants a relationship with us. If we don't have that relationship, we're going where God isn't.

I look at it this way. This life is full of pain, disappointment, unfairness. As bad as it is, this is as good as it's going to get. After the fall everyone might as well have been born in Hell, but we have this chance on Earth to look at what we've got to look forward to, or to discover a better way to live. God has that better way, and Jesus came to reveal His Father so that we can choose His way instead of our way.

It's the night before Easter Sunday. A lot of times Christians celebrate Christ's birth and resurrection and forget what happened in the middle. Jesus showed us that God loves us all: homosexual, adulterer, Muslim, Democrat, atheist, and fallen priests. It's not up to us who deserves to go to Hell; it's none of our business. Our business is how we respond to God, and that we obey His commandment to love our neighbor as ourselves.

At least those are my opinions. You're entitled to yours too.

God Bless

Aforchrist33
you said,
1. Would you please give me a scripture to verify our being "Ingrafted into Israelites" covenant.
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I did not actualy say we are under their covenant. That is the Old Covenant. The scriptures I use are:
Rom 11:17 And if some of the branches be broken off, and thou, being a wild olive tree, wert graffed in among them. and with them partakest of the root and fatness of the loive tree;
James 1:21 Wherefore lay apart all filthiness and superfluity of naughtiness, and receive with meekness the engrafted word, which is able to save your souls.

My point was that God's relationship with us is very similar to his relationship with Israel. He deals with us the same way he dealt with Israel. If we break one of the laws we won't go to hell, but we will face the consequences. I cant find where it says we don't need the law or that we don't have to follow the law. What I do find is that we perfect the law, not through the letter, for the letter kills, but through the spirit, which brings life.

you said
2. Also are you saying we are under the law by using (Romans 3:31)?
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We are not under the penalty of the law. Through christ the price has been paid. This does not make the law void.

you said
3. And why would you care what parts of the bible are not in effect after telling us you" Do not believe in writing off parts of the bible?" God bless!
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I am curious as to what parts the dispensation of grace make void. For example, in Mathew 5, the beattitudes. I can see that it was spoken to the Jews of that time. Does the dispensation of grace teach that the beattitudes is not for the gentiles?

Bottom line, I am exploring truth. My arguements are only to show my views that others may instruct me of my errors.