Recent content by Jack Terrence

God gives faith to all men. Romans 10 says that God has put the word of faith in every man's heart but that some disobey it.

Don't matter how you spin it, the Gentiles are not included in Matthew 1:21. They were not Christ's people when that word was spoken. They are included in Luke 2:32 but they are distinguished from God's people. "He will be a light that will reveal salvation to the Gentiles and bring glory to...

That's not what the Bible says. People are not saved before they believe. "Your sins are forgiven. Your faith has saved you. Go in peace." Luke 7:39-40

They were born according to the will of God which is faith and not works. He that believes does the will of God.

You keep referring to Old Testament prophecies about Israel and applying them to Gentiles. Again Paul said that the inclusion of the Gentiles was not revealed to the Old Testament prophets. Why do you contradict Christ's chosen apostle?

Again you are wrenching Old Testament Scriptures out of their context. Isaiah is addressing Judah and Israel. Paul said that the salvation of the Gentiles was not revealed to the Old Testament prophets. He said that it was a "mystery" that had been given him by direct Revelation (Ephesians 3)...

You explain but you do not prove. God didn't reveal to the Old Testament prophets that the Gentiles would become his people (Ephesians 3). You wrangle the Old Testament texts out of their context. So, when the angel spoke to Joseph and said, "he shall save his people from their sins", Joseph...

Please answer with a true of false like I have already asked. The Gentiles were "not My people" when the angel spoke to Joseph. True or false?

Your explanation is anachronistic, sir. "His people" means what Joseph would have understood it to mean in his period, not what you take it to mean in your period. According to Matthew's gospel "his people" was Israel. That's how Joseph would have understood it. The Gentiles were "not his...

The word "heathen" is horrible translation. The word simply means "nations." The "nations" are the rebellious house of Israel. Israel was Christ's inheritance. "But the LORD’s portion is his people, Jacob his allotted inheritance." The "uttermost parts of the earth" refers to the land of...

You didn't explain the truth. You convoluted it. You circumvented it by incorporating verses out of their context and concocting your own biblical narrative. Paul clearly said that the Gentiles were "not My people" and "not loved." Then they became "My people" and "loved." I think Paul would...

No, Matthew 1:21 does not include Gentiles. For Amos 3:2 says, "You ONLY I have known from all the families of the earth." The Gentiles were not known to God. As He says also in Hosea: “I will call them My people, who were not My people, And her beloved, who was not beloved.” 26 “And it...

You are committing the Negative Inference Fallacy. The negative inference fallacy is a logical fallacy that occurs when a positive assertion about something does not by itself logically lead to a negative inference about something else123. For example, if a positive assertion is true it does...

What's your point? Your source doesn't negate anything I said. Log into Facebook Isaiah 40:22 -- γῦρον (Gyron), Septuagint (LXX). Some militant atheists have made themselves irrelevant over the years by entertaining bad arguments that come back to bite them in the ass. The Greek word Gyron...