Randy, the term "time of the end" corresponds to our use of the "endtimes", "latter days", "latter years".
You are arguing what you have yet to prove. On what basis do you proclaim that "their use" of "time of the end" is the same of "our use" of "time of the end?" In language, words and phrases can be exactly the same and yet be used differently, depending on the context.
Well, I just proved to you that the context was the Greek Kingdom, leading to Antiochus 4 and his Reign of Terror. The "time of the end" was the time when the Greek Kingdom would come to an end and when Antiochus 4 would come to an end, particularly in regard to the persecution of the Jewish People by Antiochus.
You just ignored everything I showed you about the context for this particular use of "time of the end." And then you flip to Dan 12, another chapter, and claim that the something there refers to the "time of the end," or the last days of this present age.
Quite frankly, I read it quite differently, and more in sync with what Dan 8 said. In Dan 12 we have two different prophecies being referred to. Daniel was confused about those two major prophecies and asked about them.
1) In Dan 12.7 Daniel is told that the 3.5 years, referred to in Dan 7, will be the "fulfillment" of the things just mentioned, which included the resurrection at the end of the age. That did indeed have to do with the end of the present age.
2) But in Dan 12.11-12 Daniel is told how long it will be before the Reign of Terror by Antiochus 4 will come to an end. It will be 1290 days, with an additional space of time before people in Israel actually hear the news.
These are two separate prophecies, one having to do with Antichrist's 1260 days, and the other having to do with Antiochus' 1290 days. We should not conflate them.
And neither one determines how "time of the end" would apply in Dan 8, where the context was the Reign of Antiochus. The "time of the end" there would refer to the time of the end of Antiochus.
In Daniel's time, it corresponded the same. Take a look at Daniel 12, when the abomination of desolation will take place.
In verse 7, we have that same time, times, half time as in Daniel 7:25. In verse 9, to take place in "
the time of the end"
In my chart below, I took all of the end times time frames in the bible and listed them. If you will notice, there are repeats of several of them. Organizing is one of my personal traits.
Daniel 12:7 And I heard the man clothed in linen, which
was upon the waters of the river, when he held up his right hand and his left hand unto heaven, and sware by him that liveth for ever that
it shall be for
a time, times, and an half; and when he shall have accomplished to scatter the power of the holy people, all these
things shall be finished.
8 And I heard, but I understood not: then said I, O my Lord, what
shall be the end of these
things?
9 And he said, Go thy way, Daniel: for the words
are closed up and sealed
till the time of the end.
Again, "time of the end" is a phrase or term that applies in the particular context in which it is given. It is a literary fallacy to apply the same term the same way in different contexts.
The "time of the end" can refer to the time of the end of the age, when the resurrection takes place. Or, it can refer to the end of Antiochus' persecution of the Jewish People.
Dan 8 referred explicitly to Antiochus 4. You are not acknowledging that--just asserting your beliefs, regardless of the evidence.
Again, look at the following and try to deny that the "time of the end" would refer, in this context, to Antiochus 4....
Dan 8.13 Then I heard a holy one speaking, and another holy one said to him, “How long will it take for the vision to be fulfilled—the vision concerning the daily sacrifice, the rebellion that causes desolation, the surrender of the sanctuary and the trampling underfoot of the Lord’s people?" 14 He said to me, “It will take 2,300 evenings and mornings; then the sanctuary will be reconsecrated.”
Clearly, the context is speaking of a particular "vision." And this vision concerns Antiochus 4, who stoked a rebellion against orthodox Judaism, causing the Holy Place to be "violated," and the people of Israel persecuted and martyred.
The "time of the end" is explicitly concerned with that, even if in a different eschatological context the "time of the end" may refer to the end of the age. You simply ignored this and my post above, proving that "time of the end" involved this specific "vision" about Antiochus 4.
Any other use of "time of the end" in Dan 12 or elsewhere does not change this. It is the immediate context that determines how a word or phrase is being used.