How so? Should a child be able to just go to a clinic for anything and get medical treatment without parental consent? What kinds of treatments should a medical provider need consent of a parent for?
As I mentioned in a prior post, mistakes and "margin cases" can happen going in the other direction even under their ideal system as well...so not sure why they use these margin cases as a basis for "see, this is why the law should be structured around our ideal"
Hypothetical:
15 year old goes to a clinic to get some meds for an STD they caught that they don't want their parents to know about, perhaps there's a antibiotic they had an allergic reaction to when they were 3 that their parents remember but they don't, they check "no" on the "are you allergic to any medications" box. That could be a problem.
A non-hypothetical (direct from the NIH):
If it's a minor suffering a mental health episode due to something like schizophrenia, and they're seeking gender affirming care without their parents knowledge, when in fact, it's a symptom of an impending mania episode due to not taking their medication, they deny having any history of mental health issues, and insist the doctors don't notify their parents because "they'll abuse me if they find out"
Cases like that do exist in the NIH case history:
The authors present clear pattern of gender identity variations coinciding solely with psychotic episodes during schizoaffective disorder, bipolar type. The authors postulate that gender dysphoria can co-occur with other psychiatric disorders or may correspond only during acute psychosis. The distinction is critical to make to ensure accurate diagnoses regarding whether gender dysphoria is a symptom only during an acute psychotic illness, or if there is a longer-standing concern as to the patient’s gender identity and assignment.
In this case report, the patient will be referred to without using pronouns given fluctuations in pronouns over time. A Hispanic person, assigned male at birth (AMAB), identified as female upon admission. The patient denied any significant or contributing past medical history. The patient had a past psychiatric history of schizoaffective disorder, bipolar type, and presented involuntarily to the psychiatric inpatient unit for bizarre behavior and hallucinations for the past three months. Per the patient’s mother’s report, the patient had been refusing to eat, was easily agitated, and was exhibiting signs of mania, including decreased sleep, and increased sexual behavior. The patient reported medication nonadherence for an unknown amount of time. The patient denied the previous existence of a female identity. Upon admission, the patient presented in masculine clothing and identified as a female, requesting that staff use she/her/hers pronouns.
In this scenario, prompt notification to the parents could alert practitioners to what the actual issue is, and it could be a case where they don't need hormones, they need to be given a dose of their anti-psychotic meds.
In this case referenced by the NIH, the only reason doctors found out that the person was lying about not having contributing past medical history, and in fact, had been involuntarily committed previously, and had been refusing to take their meds, was precisely because they got ahold of the mother who explained the situation to them.
Given that the prevalence of schizophrenia
50 times higher in youths (ages 10-17) who identify as gender nonconforming...the potential concern I laid out above is a completely valid one.