The traditions of men make void the word of God. As Christ so stated himself. I asked you where in the Bible has Sunday ever meant the Lord's day? I didn't ask you about the traditions of men. I'm strictly a scripture girl who uses the Strong's Concordance to take things back because many times words and meanings can get lost in translation. But this one is simple. It does not mean Sunday in the scriptures.
Even in a verse like this after the resurrection, it was still called the first day of the week in the NT,
Acts 20:7 "And upon the first day of the week, when the disciples came together to break bread, Paul preached unto them, ready to depart on the morrow; and continued his speech until midnight."
So I ask again, were in the Bible has Sunday ever been called the Lord's day? Do you have an answer to that?
It's not complicated at all if we let the scriptures speak for themselves. John was in the Spirit on the Lord's day. (another way of saying the Day of the Lord) The trump has just sounded and Christ is in front of him and gives him the revelation.
If we take your meaning, John would have said, I was in the Spirit on the first day of the week. Because that's what John called Sunday.
No he speaks with reverence, "I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day and heard a great voice as if a trumpet. This is not some normal day of the week.
I'm not stating Sunday I'm suggesting you seem to think he was given this revelation on a Sunday and told to write about the past present and future.
As for it to happen soon, Christ also states he comes quickly, has he returned? We have to remember we are on God's time table.
Again, we need to let the scriptures speak for themselves. The Lord's day has not happened yet so much of that time frame is future.
The very first time God used this was in Genesis 2:4:
"These are the generations of the heavens and of the earth when they were created, in the day that the Lord God made the earth and the heavens,"
Some want to go with the literal word day, which in the times of the Bible all the way from creation to the first century, "day" was the standard 12 hours of sunlight. The modern usage of day has changed to mean 24 hours. But to the original readers "day" was only the period of daylight itself. Yet when associated with the Lord God it is a different period of time altogether. It could never be a day of week. The definition of this word has nothing to do with any day of the week. It has to do with a period of time reserved for the Lord God only. The Greek word referenced only means "of the Lord".
The other place in the New Testament is concerning the Lord's Supper. As pointed out in the NT it does not mean Sunday. In fact it was Christianity and the Byzantine church that changed the Greek name for Sunday itself and used the term, the Lord's Day following the church of Rome that did indeed call it the Lord's Day. If a first century writer and reader were referring to the actual Sunday they would avoid the use of the pagan name of the time, and just call it the first day of the week. Or the day after the Sabbath which is about the only named day of the week in Hebrew. Genesis 2:4 is not referring to the Sabbath nor a particular day of the week. It was referring to the first 1,000 years on earth after the 6 days of creation.
All Bible scholars will object to that point, because Israel did indeed forget the Sabbath Day, even though the Commandment was given as: Remember the Sabbath. The subheading or actual command that was written was: 6 days shalt thou labor. Which now only has the commandment as a weekly connotation as well.
Then in Deuteronomy we are farther removed from the original intent by just observing the Sabbath. John is pretty specific in Revelation 20 that the day of the Lord is a 1,000 year period of time. There was no subtle symbolism in that regard. Yet no one wants to admit the literal, and stick firmly with both the 1,000 years and the term itself, Lord's Day as both being symbolic, instead of one being the literal meaning of the symbolic term the Lord's Day.
But one cannot use a term from 200 years after writing Revelation and state that is why John did that. The reason why the Greeks use it is because John was the first to use the term the Lord's Day. Yet John was not referring to an event dozens of years prior known as Resurrection Sunday. He was referring to the last 1,000 years of current reality. The last 6,000 years has been given over to sin and disobedience to God. Yet God has a right to declare some time of current creation as only pertaining to God and God's will, where sin and rebellion do not exist. In fact Peter tells us not to be ignorant in 2 Peter 3:8, yet here we are today still arguing over the ignorance of human understanding and human understanding seems to rule the day, literally. No one seems willing to call certain time periods the Lord's Day. It is as Peter declares. Human understanding accepts the same old, same old, since creation, just more sin and wickedness, when in reality there was already one Lord's Day and there will be another Lord's Day. Both lasting for 1,000 literal years of man's time scale.
