Jesus became the Word (LOGOS) John 1:1

[GreekOrthodox]

Then the logos 'was moving towards' HIMSELF?

John is using the philosophical term of Logos, "rational word or thought" in this sense. It is used with the accusative "ton Theon". According to Liddle (and my Greek professor of Biblical Greek), pros "WITH ACCUS., it expresses motion or direction towards an object

Henry George Liddell, Robert Scott, A Greek-English Lexicon, πρός

 

[EarlDumarest]

You gotta' do better than that, pal.

If "god" doesn't mean the First Cause, the Great Intelligence and Reason behind the universe
in John 1:1, Logos does,
and Jesus is called the Logos who is God, making the "god" of John 1:1 the First Cause, the Great Intelligence and Reason behind the universe. . .angels, Moses and the Judges of Israel not-with-standing.

Maybe I need to remind you but Jehovah created the world THROUGH Jesus.

Heb 1:2- whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom also he made the universe

 

[throughfiierytrial]

Luke 2:52 says, “And Jesus increased in wisdom and stature, and in favour with God and man.”

Jesus increased in wisdom. Wisdom is a form of knowledge. How can Jesus increase in knowledge if He already has all knowledge? The only solution it the one that I presented with Scripture (that explains it).

As for John 16:30: Well, I believe this verse shows how Christ would have known all things based on the fact that He has access to the Father. I believe after Christ’s resurrection, there would have been no more point for Christ to suppress His Omniscience as God. For Christ would have already fulfilled His mission in being our substitute in dying for our sins, and in conquering death (the penalty of sin).

John 15:30 takes place before the Crucifixion and before resurrection so am thinking it was bestowed on Him from heaven. The baptism of Jesus included the presence of the Holy Spirit which may be of significance to this question.

 

[EarlDumarest]

Obviously Jesus was with God because he is God.

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word is God.

Did I get that right?

----------------------------------------------

No. It would read simply "In the beginning was the God-the-Word" if it meant that.
Not Jesus was with Jesus because he is Jesus.

 

[Mr. M]

Our Lord Jesus Christ
1. Learned the Text. (He had the entire Old Testament, the Tanakh memorized.)
2. Lived the Text. He was obedient to the entire Old Testament
3.Taught the Text (He always quoted the Old Testament, the Book of Deuteronomy the most, then the Book of Isaiah)
4. Prayed the Text. See His Prayers.
5. He Died the Text, (Compare Jesus' words with Psalm 22)
To sum it up. He was the Text. In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (John 1:1, this is what God says)
Psalm 119:97,98: "O how I love Your law! It is my meditation all the day..Your commandments make me wiser than my enemies, For they are ever mine."
Deut. 32:46,47 "Take to your heart all the Words with which I am warning you today, which you shall command your sons to observe carefully, even all the words of this Law. For It is not an idle word for you; indeed It is your life."
These two Passages are the very Words of God.
A few comments. Your Law, that refers to the Torah, or Pentateuch, the first 5 Books of Moses. The word Torah means Instruction. Your heart refers to your thoughts. So, Deuteronomy is telling the Israelites and us too to take in our thoughts all of God's Word!!!
This is why we only sing songs from the Bible. They are the very Words of God. God uses His Word to change lives. We actually sing both of those passages above.

logos theos means more than "the word" spoken by God through His Son.
He presents what God intended by those words...
“You have heard that it was said to those of old...
But I say to you..."
Matthew 5:21-48

 

[EarlDumarest]

I agree!

 

[Mr. M]

logos theos means more than "the word" spoken by God through His Son.
He presents what God intended by those words...
“You have heard that it was said to those of old...
But I say to you..."
Matthew 5:21-48

Here is a perfect example. Jesus teaching on divorce.
Dealing Treacherously With The Wife Of Your Youth

 

[Mr. M]

Yes! He is the living Word. The creative word. He spoke all things into being and that includes life, as well.

Here is the logos theos as the "living and active word of God" in the Gospel:
Romans 8:29 For whom He foreknew, He also predestined to be
conformed to the image of His Son, that He might be
the firstborn among many brethren.

 

[EarlDumarest]

Maybe getting off topic?

 

[Mr. M]

Maybe getting off topic?

If the logos had not become flesh and dwelt among us, would the apostle be able
to make this statement?
Imitate me, just as I also imitate Christ. 1 Corinthians 11:1

 

[EarlDumarest]

Don't get your point.
Is anyone disputing God's son became the Word?
'God-the-Trinity' didn't!

 

[Mr. M]

Don't get your point.
Is anyone disputing God's son became the Word?
'God-the-Trinity' didn't!

Nor do I understand why you think Romans 8:29 is off topic.

 

[EarlDumarest]

I now realize it DID- after reading it and the full chapter!

 

[Bible Highlighter]

John 15:30 takes place before the Crucifixion and before resurrection so am thinking it was bestowed on Him from heaven. The baptism of Jesus included the presence of the Holy Spirit which may be of significance to this question.

I don’t believe Jesus Omniscience was unsuppressed at John 16:30 and neither do I believe He received all knowledge from God the Father or the Spirit at this point in His life because Jesus asks the Father if there is another way vs. taking the cup that had all our sins in it in the Garden of Gethsemane (Matthew 26:39). I believe John 16:30 is merely expressing how Jesus can know all things by asking the Father. But we have to realize that this is his disciples saying this in John 16:30. Jesus claimed He did not know the day or the hour of His own return, but only the Father knew (See Mark 13:32). We have to understand that his disciples misunderstood a lot. The disciples did not even understand Christ’s death and resurrection prior to the cross or Calvary.

 

[Clare73]

Maybe I need to remind you but Jehovah created the world THROUGH Jesus.

Heb 1:2- whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom also he made the universe

And?

John 1:3 - "Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made."

See John 1:10; 1 Corinthians 8:6; Colossians 1:16.

There is only one God. . .in three separate persons.

1) We have separate persons (divine agents) in the work of salvation:

Three--Father, Son and Holy Spirit

a) at its beginning (Luke 1:35),
at the inauguration of Jesus' public ministry (Matthew 3:16-17) and
in the work of atonement (Hebrews 9:14),

b) the Holy Spirit completing the work (salvation) of the Father through the Son (Acts 2:38-39; Romans 8:26; 1 Corinthians 12:4-6; Ephesians 1:3-14, Ephesians 2:13-22; 2 Thessalonians 2:13; 1 Peter 1:2),

c) the only way to enter the kingdom of the Father is through faith in the Son and regeneration by the Holy Spirit (John 3:1-15).

2) Jesus shows the personhoods of three distinct and separate divine agents:

The Son is sent by the Father, in the Father's name (John 5:23, 36, 43).

The Spirit is sent by the Father in the Son's name (John 14:26).

The Spirit is subject to the Son as well as to the Father, for the Spirit is sent by the Son as well as the Father (John 15:26, 16:7, 14:26).

One doesn't send oneself, one sends another who is separate from oneself.

Jesus shows three distinct and separate persons in the Trinity.

The NT presents only one God. . .in three separate divine persons.

 

[EarlDumarest]

And?

John 1:3 - "Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made."

See John 1:10; 1 Corinthians 8:6; Colossians 1:16.

There is only one God. . .in three persons.

_______________________________________________

This church manta is OPPOSITE to what Jesus said.
So be it...

 

[EarlDumarest]

To the rest of you, does it makes sense that God made all things through... HIMSELF?

 

[GreekOrthodox]

To the rest of you, does it makes sense that God made all things through... HIMSELF?

Yes, because the Trinity works in unison.

 

[Clare73]

This church manta is OPPOSITE to what Jesus said.
So be it...

Contrare. . .the "church manta" is precisely what Jesus said:

There is only one God. . .in three separate persons.

1) We have separate persons (divine agents) in the work of salvation:

Three--Father, Son and Holy Spirit

a) at its beginning (Luke 1:35),
at the inauguration of Jesus' public ministry (Matthew 3:16-17) and
in the work of atonement (Hebrews 9:14),

b) the Holy Spirit completing the work (salvation) of the Father through the Son (Acts 2:38-39; Romans 8:26; 1 Corinthians 12:4-6; Ephesians 1:3-14, Ephesians 2:13-22; 2 Thessalonians 2:13; 1 Peter 1:2),

c) the only way to enter the kingdom of the Father is through faith in the Son and regeneration by the Holy Spirit (John 3:1-15).

2) Jesus himself shows the personhoods of three distinct and separate divine agents:

The Son is sent by the Father, in the Father's name (John 5:23, 36, 43).

The Spirit is sent by the Father in the Son's name (John 14:26).

The Spirit is subject to the Son as well as to the Father, for the Spirit is sent by the Son as well as by the Father (John 15:26, 16:7, 14:26).

One doesn't send oneself, one sends another who is separate from oneself.

Jesus shows three distinct and separate persons in the Trinity.

There is nothing in the "church manta" that is the opposite of what Jesus said.
Rather, the "church manta" is precisely what Jesus said.

.

 

[EarlDumarest]

Except to the words of Jesus Christ.