Daniel Marsh
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I think John used logos to get others to keep reading.
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Then he wasn't WITH God?
What do you mean, and to whom were you responding?
Montgomy's NT and Thayer's Lexicon has "face to face" for the word with.
Please explain, it's not obvious to me.John 1 refers to the word being God ONCE.
It refers to the word being WITH God TWICE.
What the show is obvious, if you aren't chained to church teaching...
Please explain, it's not obvious to me.
Thanks.
None refer to them as Logos (John 1:1).Many were referred to a God (caps don't exist in Heb/Grk).
Angels, Moses, and the Judges of Israel were.
Did that mean they joined the 'Godhood'?
En arkhêi ên ho lógos, kaì ho lógos ên pròs tòn theón, kaì theòs ên ho lógos.Then he wasn't WITH God?
None refer to them as Logos (John 1:1).
Logos in Greek philosophy being the First Cause, the great Intelligence and Reason behind the universe.
En arkhêi ên ho lógos, kaì ho lógos ên pròs tòn theón, kaì theòs ên ho lógos.
pròs is translated as with. However, pros has a subtext of "movement towards". So one way to translate it would be:
In beginning, was the Logos, and the Logos was with moving towards the God, and God was the Logos.
You gotta' do better than that, pal.I did not say Logos but said GOD!
But we cannot say with absolute certainty that He suppressed it because that is not really given us. He was man...God with us, however...but, could not one also surmise that His heavenly wisdom was given Him from the Father.Jesus is the Eternal Logos or Word (Second person of the Godhead or the Trinity) (John 1:1) (1 John 5:7 KJV). Jesus's Omniscience (i.e. to have all knowledge) was suppressed.
The following verses talks about the glory that Jesus once shared with God the Father before the world came into existence.
"And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was." (John 17:5).
"For the earth shall be filled with the knowledge of the glory of the LORD, as the waters cover the sea." (Habakkuk 2:14).
"For God, who commanded the light to shine out of darkness, hath shined in our hearts, to give the light of the knowledge of the glory of God in the face of Jesus Christ." (2 Corinthians 4:6).
Jesus was able to learn because His Omniscience was suppressed so as to be like a man.
"Although He was a Son [who had never been disobedient to the Father], He learned [active, special] obedience through what He suffered." (Hebrews 5:8) (AMP).
Jesus was being made perfect in obedience (through suffering) as a man. He was a man in the sense that he had a flesh and blood body of a man and He was limited in knowledge because His Omniscience in being God was suppressed. So Jesus did not lose His Omniscience. He always had it, but He merely suppressed it.
He performed spiritual work...the teachers of the Law were not spiritual enough to glean from the Law that spiritual work is for the Sabbath.Did Jesus work on the seventh day? He was accused of working on the seventh day. The Law forbids working on the seventh day. For this reason the chief priests were trying to kill him.
In John 5:1-16 Jesus healed a paralytic by the Pool of Bethesda. This happened on the Sabbath.
John 5:16 (NIV) So, because Jesus was doing these things on the Sabbath, the Jewish leaders began to persecute him. 17 In his defense Jesus said to them, “My Father is always at his work to this very day, and I too am working.” 18 For this reason they tried all the more to kill him; not only was he breaking the Sabbath, but he was even calling God his own Father, making himself equal with God.
But we cannot say with absolute certainty that He suppressed it because that is not really given us. He was man...God with us, however...but, could not one also surmise that His heavenly wisdom was given Him from the Father.
I guess I'm not certain what you are meaning by "He suppressed" His omniscience. John 16:30 shows the Father in Christ. Please comment.
Then he wasn't WITH God?
Then he wasn't WITH God?