God created the earth and the earth was without form

[FreeGrace2]

He is using a translation of the Hebrew word "tohu" which has multiple meanings depending on context but he is choosing the one that fits his narrative "gap theory" basically.

Uh, no it doesn't have "multiple meanings depending on context".

And since you bring up context, there is only 1 verse, which is hardly context.

And, since God did NOT reveal any history regarding time between v.1 and v.2, we simply don't know.

But what we DO know is that the LXX translates "waw" as "but" rather than "and". And those translators were far closer to both Hebrew and Koine Greek than anyone today. Plus, "waw" in v.2 is a disjunctive, meaning it indicates a break between the 2 verses. There sure was a break of time. And we don't know how long it was.

Also, the word "hayah", the verb of existence, meaning "to be, become" according to lexicons, is translated nearly 60% of the time as "become/became" in the exact same form as found in v.2. That same form is translated as "was" only 6% of the time in the OT. And 1 of those times is v.2.

And "tohu" is translated as a desolate wasteland, or a waste place elsewhere.

 

[FreeGrace2]

That and forcing an unintended meaning to the word "form."

Nope. Since v.1 says that God created the earth, we know that the earth was matter. And ALL matter has form. Can't get around it.

So to be without form doesnt make sense. In fact, the earth BECAME a wasteland.

 

[FreeGrace2]

After reading a few posts I see your problem, but there are others who have had the correct answer to your arguments, and you simply dismissed them, and I don't expect to be treated any differently.

Your "correct answer" is only your opinion, and theirs.

It was brought to your attention that the Apostle had said the earth was formed from water, aka, "the deep." Man was formed from the dust of the earth, but you couldn't reasonably and intelligently argue that man had form before Day Six, even though the matter was there.

Since the Bible is clear that God made man on the 6th day, so what that there was matter before the 6th day. I don't see your point.

If I had to do so much violence to the texts of Scripture to support my presuppostions, I would start to question my presuppositions.

They aren't presuppositions. There was nothing to pre-suppose.

 

[BeyondET]

Also, the word "hayah", the verb of existence, meaning "to be, become" according to lexicons, is translated nearly 60% of the time as "become/became" in the exact same form as found in v.2. That same form is translated as "was" only 6% of the time in the OT. And 1 of those times is v.2.

And "tohu" is translated as a desolate wasteland, or a waste place elsewhere.

if it is translated 6% of the time what makes you think v2 isn't part of the 6% that it has to be of the 60%

 

[BeyondET]

before the invention of verse numbering system 1551AD, in my opinion verse 1 genesis is the title of the chapter of latter days. they certainly didn't read it as genesis verse 1

 

[Theopolitan]

According to the actual meaning of the Hebrew words. Anyone can do the research and realize this. It involves looking at the same key words in v.2 with how those SAME words are translated elsewhere in the OT and how Hebrew lexicon defines them.

Wow. That's really scholarly right there, that.

 

[FreeGrace2]

Wow. That's really scholarly right there, that.

Why don't you do some work yourself, so you can see for yourself?

I recommend starting with biblehub.com so you can see how every word in a verse is translated elsewhere. I think you may be surprised.