I believe your view does not line up with what Paul taught here:
2 Thessalonians 2:1 Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him, 2 That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand. 3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;
You said "I also do not believe that moral decline is a precondition to the 1 Thess. 4:17 Rapture event", but Paul indicates here that there will be a falling away first and the man of sin revealed BEFORE the coming of Christ and our being gathered to Him, which is an obvious reference to the rapture. So, it seems to me that your statement directly contradicts what Paul taught in this passage.
Hi, and thanks for your post.
Given the biblical and extra-biblical data, i believe my alternate interpretation of is more plausible than what has been circulating in the Churches for a long while now. The following is from one of my older posts (#65).
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Yes, 2Th. 2:3 is certainly a go-to verse for those proclaiming that the nations must decline (morally or otherwise) in fulfillment of a supposed precondition to the
1 Thessalonians 4:17 event. However, there is an alternative interpretation. But before proceeding, I must make two important points. In my personal eschatological model, I understand that the
Matthew 24:31 and
1 Thessalonians 4:17 events are separate events with seven or more years between them, not two stages of one event, like so many prophecy teachers teach, but simply two separate events (I hold to a pre-trib model). I also believe that all verses or passages that describe inevitable moral decline in the nations (to whatever degree) have either been misinterpreted, have occurred/are occurring, or have been applied to the wrong time period.
2Th 2:3 makes no reference to some bibically mandated, consistent, progressive, worlwide inevitable moral decline occurring pre-Rapture. Also, the Bible passage here does not explicitly state in what way this falling away was or is to be realized, nor exactly in what form it would take.
And of course, there are those who intentionally or mistakenly believe there is some kind of additional word in the text modifying αποστασια (apostasia; Falling away), such as "great" or something else. No such modifier is in the text.
Alternative interpretation 1
I will remind you that the Apostle Paul was very concerned with members of the churches he established "falling away," for he said:
Act 20:28 "Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood.
Act 20:29 For I know this, that after my departing shall grievous wolves enter in among you, not sparing the flock.
Act 20:30 Also of your own selves shall men arise, speaking perverse things, to draw away disciples after them.
Act 20:31 Therefore watch, and remember, that by the space of three years I ceased not to warn every one night and day with tears."
Now, it is self-evident that a falling away has
already occurred and
continues to occur. Apostasy has already occurred and will continue to occur. People fall away all the time. Early Church apostasy occurred in the early Church. Visibly speaking, it extended all the way up to the 12th Century. In fact, it occurred to such an extent that it resulted in paganism infiltrating the early Church. But of course, before that, there was other heresies that developed and grew to such and extent that they had to be formally addressed.
And it should be remembered that these "falling aways" did not require some worldwide, progressive moral decline in the world.
In addition, if one interprets 2Th 2:3 to mean that the "falling away" that Paul describes is a necessary precondition to the "day of Christ" or the reveal of the Antichrist, then one must consider that the apostle Paul did not specify exactly when this falling away would occur. In other words, the Historical and present falling away that I mentioned could very well be the fulfillment of this verse. This of course would be the fulfillment of 2Th. 2:3 occurring before the
1 Thessalonians 4:17 event (before the 7-year trib). This works within the pre-trib model.
Now, that is just one alternative interpretation of 2Th 2:3. There is another alternative interpretation for those supporting eschatological models other than the pre-trib model.
Alternative interpretation 2
Another possible interpretation occurs with other eschatological models wherein this "falling away" could simply be those Christians that buy into the Anti-Christ's deception and actually fall away in following Him. That would occur during the seven-year trib. Personally, I hold to the pre-trib position.
