When did exactly incest become incest and abomination to LORD?

Hank77

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According to your interpretations, David and Samuel and Gideon were exempt from the Law. They had a special status.
I did not say they had a special status. Only that God may have made an exception in a particular circumstance.

There was a terrible plague in Israel when David prayed for the Lord's help. This is when he was told by the Lord's prophet to perform two certain types of sacrifice at a certain location.
But you already know my answer.
No, if I knew your answer to the question below I would not have asked. I don't assume that I know another's thoughts.
I'd appreciate it if you would answer the question below. Thank you.
Did David know that it was unlawful for him to eat the showbread?
 
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Andrewn

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Did David know that it was unlawful for him to eat the showbread?
David was not aware that showbread was for descendants of Aaron only, was not aware that only descendants of Aaron could offer sacrifices, was not aware that half-siblings could not marry, was not aware that he could not have a census of the people, and was not aware that only Kohathites could carry the Ark of Covenant.

Even Jesus talked about the showbread issue in the Gospels.

And Samuel was a full-functioning priest even though he was not a descendant of Aaron.

It's either that David and Samuel were not aware of these commands or that they were in the habit of disregarding the Law :)!
 
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Hank77

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David was not aware that showbread was for descendants of Aaron only, was not aware that only descendants of Aaron could offer sacrifices, was not aware that half-siblings could not marry, was not aware that he could not have a census of the people, and was not aware that only Kohathites could carry the Ark of Covenant.

It's either that David and Samuel were not aware of these commands or that they were in the habit of disregarding the Law :)!

Let's say you are correct. Why don't they know?
 
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Hank77

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The book of Leviticus belongs to what scholars call the "Priestly Source," which is written after Deuteronomy, probably during and after the exile (between 571–486 BC). This is a long time after David.
Because it probably wasn't written down it wasn't known? Is that what you are claiming?

EDIT: Joshua knew, wrote, and read the Book of the Law of Moses.
What happened that David would not have known what the Law said?

Joshua 8
34 And afterward he read all the words of the law, the blessing, and the curse, according to all that is written in the Book of the Law. 35 There was not a word of all that Moses commanded that Joshua did not read before all the assembly of Israel, and the women, and the little ones, and the sojourners who livedc]">[c] among them.
 
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FutureAndAHope

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When and why it became abomination?
Assuming Adam and Eve were created beings and Eve was mother of all living thier kids had to be married to each other and so on untill the genealogy tree spreads alot of branches , at what point and why did God make statement that incest is abomination to him?

God made an issue of it in the Law given to Moses. Up until that time it was not stated, but we know that the law is a reflection of what God thinks, so God is against incest.

Lev 18:9 The nakedness of thy sister, the daughter of thy father, or daughter of thy mother, whether she be born at home, or born abroad, even their nakedness thou shalt not uncover.
 
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FutureAndAHope

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The story of Absalom and Tamar shows that incest was not a problem at least until David's reign.

I disagree, it shows only that Israel did not fully follow the Law. David as an example had many wives, which the law forbade.

Deu 17:17 Neither shall he multiply wives to himself, that his heart turn not away: neither shall he greatly multiply to himself silver and gold.

The law also forbade incest.

Lev 18:9 The nakedness of thy sister, the daughter of thy father, or daughter of thy mother, whether she be born at home, or born abroad, even their nakedness thou shalt not uncover.

God's will is that incest not occur. The issue of Tamar, would by people at the time be seen as a grey issue, for Tamar was a half-sister. Sometimes God allows grey issues, while forbidding moral crimes.
 
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NomNomPizza

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According to Law, priests have to be descendants of Aaron.

Gideon, Samuel, and David offered sacrifices. They apparently were not aware of the Law!!
When even field worker would make offering to God , it would be still offering and he would be offering it in temple even tho he didn't have to perform the ritual of killing it , ye priests would do it but its still considered as this man was offering on the altar not the priest.
 
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NomNomPizza

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God made an issue of it in the Law given to Moses. Up until that time it was not stated, but we know that the law is a reflection of what God thinks, so God is against incest.

Lev 18:9 The nakedness of thy sister, the daughter of thy father, or daughter of thy mother, whether she be born at home, or born abroad, even their nakedness thou shalt not uncover.

no not really , most laws were ceremonial and for short time example is eating pig for Jews , it was made for a part of time unclean then it was clean again after Christ died.
 
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NomNomPizza

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I disagree, it shows only that Israel did not fully follow the Law. David as an example had many wives, which the law forbade.

Deu 17:17 Neither shall he multiply wives to himself, that his heart turn not away: neither shall he greatly multiply to himself silver and gold.

The law also forbade incest.

Lev 18:9 The nakedness of thy sister, the daughter of thy father, or daughter of thy mother, whether she be born at home, or born abroad, even their nakedness thou shalt not uncover.

God's will is that incest not occur. The issue of Tamar, would by people at the time be seen as a grey issue, for Tamar was a half-sister. Sometimes God allows grey issues, while forbidding moral crimes.
No the actually OT law never forbids to have multiple wifes it's western ideology not something you find in Old Testament that prohibits somebody to have wife. Moreover David was given the wifes of his enemies as gift from God unless you will claim that God gives evil gifts it wont work.
 
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NomNomPizza

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David was not aware that showbread was for descendants of Aaron only, was not aware that only descendants of Aaron could offer sacrifices, was not aware that half-siblings could not marry, was not aware that he could not have a census of the people, and was not aware that only Kohathites could carry the Ark of Covenant.

Even Jesus talked about the showbread issue in the Gospels.

And Samuel was a full-functioning priest even though he was not a descendant of Aaron.

It's either that David and Samuel were not aware of these commands or that they were in the habit of disregarding the Law :)!
There was always different type of priesthood above Leviticus priesthood anyways and it survived untill Jesus day , Jesus was the next priest after this order he is not priest after Levitical priesthood.
 
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FutureAndAHope

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No the actually OT law never forbids to have multiple wifes it's western ideology not something you find in Old Testament that prohibits somebody to have wife. Moreover David was given the wifes of his enemies as gift from God unless you will claim that God gives evil gifts it wont work.

Multiple wives were not God's ideal, he allowed it, but by the Bible, by His law, it was not encouraged. As we see in both the Old and New Testament:

OT:

Deu 17:17 Neither shall he multiply wives to himself, that his heart turn not away: neither shall he greatly multiply to himself silver and gold.

New Testament:
1Ti 3:2 A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, vigilant, sober, of good behaviour, given to hospitality, apt to teach;

1Ti 3:12 Let the deacons be the husbands of one wife, ruling their children and their own houses well.
 
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FutureAndAHope

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no not really , most laws were ceremonial and for short time example is eating pig for Jews , it was made for a part of time unclean then it was clean again after Christ died.

What? Of course God is against incest, He did not make it illegal (at the time of Moses) then legal again at the time of Christ.

Mat 5:18-19 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled. Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.

God's moral law does not change.
 
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Gregory Thompson

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When and why it became abomination?
Assuming Adam and Eve were created beings and Eve was mother of all living thier kids had to be married to each other and so on untill the genealogy tree spreads alot of branches , at what point and why did God make statement that incest is abomination to him?
Mixing seeds was a big deal back then, mixing fabrics, even marrying outside of the tribe was a big deal.

The law talked about it Deuteronomy for the reason of it "being for their good"

It wasn't explained why other than an argument about how it looked. (Reasons such as "she is your aunt" and nothing else)

However, in Hebrews it said that Levi paid tithes to Melchizadek because he was in the loins of Abraham. So the spiritual nature of bloodlines and how it leads to the messiah centuries later, isn't really written.

However, it is possible that there was nothing profound about it, except for their safety. This is also common in the law teachings.

Another thought is around the time the 12 tribes were established the life span change to "no more than 125 years" had taken effect, so this may have had genetic implications that did not apply to the first humans.
 
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chad kincham

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When and why it became abomination?
Assuming Adam and Eve were created beings and Eve was mother of all living thier kids had to be married to each other and so on untill the genealogy tree spreads alot of branches , at what point and why did God make statement that incest is abomination to him?

The gene pool degraded over time as as shown by the dropping life spans in the Bible, so incest laws were needed to keep bad genes in a family from stacking up.
 
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Andrewn

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The book of Leviticus belongs to what scholars call the "Priestly Source," which is written after Deuteronomy, probably during and after the exile (between 571–486 BC). This is a long time after David.

Joshua knew, wrote, and read the Book of the Law of Moses. What happened that David would not have known what the Law said
Joshua read all the words of the Law—the blessing and the curse—according to all that is written in the book of the Law. There was not a word of all that Moses commanded that Joshua did not read before all the assembly of Israel.

It doesn't say that Joshua read from the book of Leviticus, does it? The book of the Law and the words of Moses are recorded in Exodus, Numbers, and Deuteronomy.
 
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Andrewn

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I disagree, it shows only that Israel did not fully follow the Law. David as an example had many wives, which the law forbade. Deu 17:17 Neither shall he multiply wives to himself, that his heart turn not away: neither shall he greatly multiply to himself silver and gold.
We hear about a book of Law in the time of Joshua in the 15th century BC and again in the time of King Josiah in the 6th century BC. But is it the same book? Which book in our current Bible is it? Why apparently no one was aware of its presence for 900 years?

If Samuel, David, and Solomon were aware of its presence but chose to ignore it, as you say, then this raises more problems than it solves.
 
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Andrewn

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When even field worker would make offering to God , it would be still offering and he would be offering it in temple even tho he didn't have to perform the ritual of killing it , ye priests would do it but its still considered as this man was offering on the altar not the priest.
There is no evidence that Gideon, Samuel, and David hired Aaronic priests to officiate in their offerings.
 
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Andrewn

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There was always different type of priesthood above Leviticus priesthood anyways and it survived untill Jesus day , Jesus was the next priest after this order he is not priest after Levitical priesthood.
This is an interesting point. You're saying that Gideon, Samuel, and David were priests after the order of Melchizedek. Interesting idea.
 
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Andrewn

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Multiple wives were not God's ideal, he allowed it, but by the Bible, by His law, it was not encouraged. As we see in both the Old and New Testament:

OT:

Deu 17:17 Neither shall he multiply wives to himself, that his heart turn not away: neither shall he greatly multiply to himself silver and gold.
There is no reason to project a NT rule on the OT. Polygamy was allowed in the OT and Sephardic Jews practiced it until recently. The verse you quote simply means not to have too many wives. For example, have only 4 wives as the Quran says :).
 
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