When did exactly incest become incest and abomination to LORD?

NomNomPizza

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When and why it became abomination?
Assuming Adam and Eve were created beings and Eve was mother of all living thier kids had to be married to each other and so on untill the genealogy tree spreads alot of branches , at what point and why did God make statement that incest is abomination to him?
 

Hank77

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I think it must have been after the nation of Israel was established as a Theocracy and the laws were given. This would have been after the patriarchal age of Abraham, Issac, and Jacob.

Tamar tells her half-brother Amnon that her father David would allow them to marry but she may have only said this so that Amnon wouldn't force her and thinking David would say no and Amnon wouldn't rebel against him.
 
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Sabertooth

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The story of Absalom and Tamar shows that incest was not a problem at least until David's reign.
If David would have allowed Amnon & Tamar to marry, incest would have only been a problem for unmarried half-siblings.

(IIRC, Abraham & Sarah were half-siblings to each other, too.)

The point was: sharing a house with a "hot" half-sister did not grant sexual license. If she was otherwise eligible, they had to get married first.
 
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Andrewn

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The ot laws are the first mention of limiting marriage to those who are not of the close family.. So start reading Leviticus.
There is no evidence that David was aware of the laws in Leviticus. Probably Leviticus had not been written.

Tamar tells her half-brother Amnon that her father David would allow them to marry but she may have only said this so that Amnon wouldn't force her and thinking David would say no and Amnon wouldn't rebel against him.
"Tamar tells her half-brother Amnon that her father David would allow them to marry" is a fact. The rest of the sentence is an attempt to explain how David was not aware of the laws in Leveticus.

If David would have allowed Amnon & Tamar to marry, incest would have only been a problem for unmarried half-siblings. (IIRC, Abraham & Sarah were half-siblings to each other, too.)
Sex between people not married to each other is generally prohibited regardless of incest.
 
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Sabertooth

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There is no evidence that David was aware of the laws in Leviticus. Probably Leviticus had not been written.
Wasn't Leviticus written during Moses' lifetime?
Moses reiterates much of Leviticus in Deuteronomy (which means "second edition of the law").

That would have been well-before David's time.
Sex between people not married to each other is generally prohibited regardless of incest.
Tamar's statement and Abraham's marriage indicate that half-sibling marriage was acceptable.
Leviticus 18 says that half-sibling sex (among others) is unacceptable.
The only difference seemed to be whether the couple was married or not; not that they were half-siblings.
 
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Andrewn

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Wasn't Leviticus written during Moses' lifetime? Moses reiterates much of Leviticus in Deuteronomy (which means "second edition of the law"). That would have been well-before David's time.
David offered sacrifices even though he was not of the tribe of Levi. Later, he limited the priesthood to the sons of Zadok. Did David know that the priesthood belonged to all sons of Aaron?

The book of Leviticus belongs to what scholars call the "Priestly Source," which is written after Deuteronomy, probably during and after the exile (between 571–486 BC). This is a long time after David.
 
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Sabertooth

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The book of Leviticus belongs to what scholars call the "Priestly Source," which is probably written during and after the exile (between 571–486 BC). This is a long time after David.
How did Moses reiterate it in Deuteronomy, then?
 
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Andrewn

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How did Moses reiterate it in Deuteronomy, then?
According to that theory, Deuteronomy was written before Leviticus. Please note that Jews do not call it Deuteronomy. Jews call it Devarim (Hebrew: דְּבָרִים‎), "the words [of Moses]." It started to be called Deuteronomy (meaning the second law) in the LXX, the 2nd century BC Greek translation.
 
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Hank77

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"Tamar tells her half-brother Amnon that her father David would allow them to marry" is a fact. The rest of the sentence is an attempt to explain how David was not aware of the laws in Leveticus.
You are very wrong. There was no attempt to say that David was not aware of the laws that Moses laid down in Leviticus.
I believe that David fully knew the law that Moses gave.

Hank77 said:
Tamar tells her half-brother Amnon that her father David would allow them to marry but she may have only said this so that Amnon wouldn't force her and thinking David would say no and Amnon wouldn't rebel against him.
 
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Hank77

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How did Moses reiterate it in Deuteronomy, then?
I'm not sure why we need to go to Deuteronomy when it's clear that God gave Moses the laws as it clearly says in Leviticus?

Lev. 18
1And the LORD spake unto Moses, saying, 2Speak unto the children of Israel, and say unto them, I am the LORD your God.
...
9The nakedness of thy sister, the daughter of thy father, or daughter of thy mother, whether she be born at home, or born abroad, even their nakedness thou shalt not uncover.
...
11The nakedness of thy father's wife's daughter, begotten of thy father, she is thy sister, thou shalt not uncover her nakedness.

It seems to me that when Moses received these laws from the Lord that incest was no longer allowed.
I don't see how it matters when it was written down but what matters is who received it and spoke it to the children of Israel.
 
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Hank77

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David offered sacrifices even though he was not of the tribe of Levi.
I don't see the problem if there is one?

2Samuel 24
18 On that day Gad went to David and said to him, “Go up and build an altar to the Lord on the threshing floor of Araunah the Jebusite.” 19 So David went up, as the Lord had commanded through Gad.
...
So David bought the threshing floor and the oxen and paid fifty shekelsb]">[b] of silver for them. 25 David built an altar to the Lord there and sacrificed burnt offerings and fellowship offerings. Then the Lord answered his prayer in behalf of the land, and the plague on Israel was stopped.


King Saul had also been commanded by the Lord through the prophet Samuel to make sacrifices. He was supposed to wait until Samuel joined him but he disobeyed and did it on his own. That didn't turn out so well for him.
 
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Sabertooth

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I'm not sure why we need to go to Deuteronomy when it's clear that God gave Moses the laws as it clearly says in Leviticus?
I was just trying to show that Deuteronomy was written after Leviticus, so Leviticus had to be written in Moses' lifetime (contrary to the proposal of the other poster). I quoted Leviticus 18, too.

Tamar seemed to believe that such a marriage was acceptable --she was even amenable to it. She was willing to be Amnon's wife, but not his harlot or rape victim. Your view is an interesting alternative, too.
 
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Andrewn

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I don't see the problem if there is one?
According to Law, priests have to be descendants of Aaron.

Gideon, Samuel, and David offered sacrifices. They apparently were not aware of the Law!!
 
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Hank77

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According to Law, priests have to be descendants of Aaron.

Gideon, Samuel, and David offered sacrifices. They apparently were not aware of the Law!!
And God can't make exceptions to the rule?
 
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paul1149

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According to Law, priests have to be descendants of Aaron.

Gideon, Samuel, and David offered sacrifices. They apparently were not aware of the Law!!
The high holy feasts could only be officiated by the Aaronic priesthood. Then there were the duties of the Levitical priesthood. Did what these other three did encroach on either of them?
 
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Andrewn

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And God can't make exceptions to the rule?
Fact: Gideon, Samuel, and David offered sacrifices even though they were not descendants of Aaron.

Hank77 interpretation: God made exceptions to the rule.

Andrewn interpretation: They were not aware of the rule.

I guess viewers can select the interpretation that makes sense to them.
 
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Hank77

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Fact: Gideon, Samuel, and David offered sacrifices even though they were not descendants of Aaron.

Hank77 interpretation: God made exceptions to the rule.

Andrewn interpretation: They were not aware of the rule.

I guess viewers can select the interpretation that makes sense to them.
Did David know that it was unlawful for him to eat the showbread?
 
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Andrewn

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Did David know that it was unlawful for him to eat the showbread?
According to your interpretations, David and Samuel and Gideon were exempt from the Law. They had a special status.

But you already know my answer.
 
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