Observation: Elijah go's up against the prophet's of baal. david name's an area after baal.

Jesusfann777888

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1 Kings 18:25

“And Elijah said unto the prophets of baal, Choose you one bullock for yourselves, and dress it first; for ye are many; and call on the name of your gods, but put no fire under.”

King James Version (KJV)

In verse 11, David declared “God has broken through my enemies by my hand, like the breakthrough of waters” and named the place “baal- perazmin”.

first baal is a pagan demon. so why is David "supposedly" naming something after a demon?

Probabilitie's:

1. The Bible has been heavily altered.
2. david worshipped a false god who was not Yahweh.
3. that certain instance's of people reffering to their personal (f)gods in The Bible are not Reffering To Yahweh.

Thought's?
 
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GOD Shines Forth!

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1 Kings 18:25

“And Elijah said unto the prophets of baal, Choose you one bullock for yourselves, and dress it first; for ye are many; and call on the name of your gods, but put no fire under.”

King James Version (KJV)

In verse 11, David declared “God has broken through my enemies by my hand, like the breakthrough of waters” and named the place “baal- perazmin”.

first baal is a pagan demon. so why is David "supposedly" naming something after a demon?

Probabilitie's:

1. The Bible has been heavily altered.
2. david worshipped a false god who was not Yahweh.
3. that certain instance's of people reffering to their personal (f)gods in The Bible are not Reffering To Yahweh.

Thought's?

It seems Baal-perazim means "master of breaches". It does not appear David is referencing Baal the false deity.
 
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2BeholdHisGlory

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2Sam 5:20 And David came to Baalperazim, and David smote them there, and said, The LORD hath broken forth upon mine enemies before me, as the breach of waters. Therefore he called the name of that place Baalperazim.

1Ch 14:11 So they came up to Baalperazim; and David smote them there. Then David said, God hath broken in upon mine enemies by mine hand like the breaking forth of waters: therefore they called the name of that place Baalperazim.
 
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Jesusfann777888

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It seems Baal-perazim means "master of breaches". It does not appear David is referencing Baal the false deity.


1.) baal is a name.
2.) Holman Bible dictionary: baal- perazmin,
“baal of the breaches.” in Hebrew baal in this instance is treated as a name. Last Time I checked, Elijah Mean's, "Yahweh Is My God."

Because David is " supposedly " using the name baal, and in the context of the verse stating something that if he were, would make it blasphemous there is no insinuation that:

1. the same named used by Elijah who condemned the name baal as a false god in the same written language where it appears in Hebrew in the case David ( which I know David didn't) used it in the verse, and the meaning is also supplied prior to the name given to the place, in the verse, The Bible has been altered and the attribution to the name of a demon that is stated in the verse is blasphemous. I'm going to read The Source Text to see if that's what David said or not, and I guarantee you He Didn't.

You're not coming at this as if you are Considering The Original Language The Bible was written in.

I need to Check.

You also have to realize that if Elijah used it in the context of a name and gave it a demonic attribution it's name Could'nt Pertain to God.
 
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paul1149

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Ba'al means "master". It can be used generically or specifically for the false deity. Here David is taking the generic word and applying it to the Lord. There's even a small dig here - the Lord, not Ba'al, is the true "Master of the Breakthrough".

In Spanish, Senor can generically mean mister or it can mean the Lord himself. The context is what makes it clear.
 
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BobRyan

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1 Kings 18:25

“And Elijah said unto the prophets of baal, Choose you one bullock for yourselves, and dress it first; for ye are many; and call on the name of your gods, but put no fire under.”

King James Version (KJV)

In (1 Chron 14) verse 11, David declared “God has broken through my enemies by my hand, like the breakthrough of waters” and named the place “baal- perazmin”.

first baal is a pagan demon. so why is David "supposedly" naming something after a demon?

Probabilitie's:

1. The Bible has been heavily altered.
2. david worshipped a false god who was not Yahweh.
3. that certain instance's of people reffering to their personal (f)gods in The Bible are not Reffering To Yahweh.

Thought's?

1 Chron 14:11
  1. Baal-perazim = "lord of the breaks"
    1. the site of a victory of David over the Philistines, and of a great destruction of their images; also called 'Mount Perazim'
Adam Clarke's Commentary on 1 Chron 14:11 "Like the breaking forth of waters - "And David said, The Lord hath broken the enemies of David like to the breaking of a potter's vessel full of water."


10 David inquired of God, saying, “Shall I go up against the Philistines? And will You hand them over to me?” Then the Lord said to him, “Go up, for I will hand them over to you.” 11 So they came up to Baal-perazim, and David defeated them there; and David said, “God has broken through my enemies by my hand, like the breakthrough of waters.” Therefore they named that place Baal-perazim. 12 They abandoned their gods there; so David gave the order and they were burned with fire. 1 Chron 14:11 NKJV
==================================================

Out of curiosity - how did this come up??
 
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2BeholdHisGlory

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2Sam 5:20 And David came to Baalperazim, and David smote them there, and said, The LORD hath broken forth upon mine enemies before me, as the breach of waters. Therefore he called the name of that place Baalperazim.

1Ch 14:11 So they came up to Baalperazim; and David smote them there. Then David said, God hath broken in upon mine enemies by mine hand like the breaking forth of waters: therefore they called the name of that place Baalperazim.


Says David CAME to Baalperazim (2 Sam 5:20) just as it says they CAME UP to Baalperazin (1 Ch 14:11) but the verse quoted in the original post cuts out what preceeds it. It was called that before it shows they came to it.
 
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Jesusfann777888

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1 Chron 14:11
  1. Baal-perazim = "lord of the breaks"
    1. the site of a victory of David over the Philistines, and of a great destruction of their images; also called 'Mount Perazim'
Adam Clarke's Commentary on 1 Chron 14:11 "Like the breaking forth of waters - "And David said, The Lord hath broken the enemies of David like to the breaking of a potter's vessel full of water."


10 David inquired of God, saying, “Shall I go up against the Philistines? And will You hand them over to me?” Then the Lord said to him, “Go up, for I will hand them over to you.” 11 So they came up to Baal-perazim, and David defeated them there; and David said, “God has broken through my enemies by my hand, like the breakthrough of waters.” Therefore they named that place Baal-perazim. 12 They abandoned their gods there; so David gave the order and they were burned with fire. 1 Chron 14:11 NKJV
==================================================

Out of curiosity - how did this come up??
I tend to notice pattern's lately. Then I make Logical assessment's based on what's observed.

Adonai ( אֲדֹנָי‎, lit. "My Lords") is the plural form of adon ("Lord") along with the first-person singular pronoun enclitic. As with Elohim, Adonai's grammatical form is usually explained as a plural of majesty. In the Hebrew Bible, it is nearly always used to refer to God (approximately 450 occurrences).

Don't you think if adon mean's Lord In Hebrew that it should read, adon-perazim.
 
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Jesusfann777888

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Says David CAME to Baalperazim (2 Sam 5:20) just as it says they CAME UP to Baalperazin (1 Ch 14:11) but the verse quoted in the original post cuts out what preceeds it. It was called that before it shows they came to it.
I think this is Contextual because it say David named it that in english.
 
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Jesusfann777888

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1 Chron 14:11
  1. Baal-perazim = "lord of the breaks"
    1. the site of a victory of David over the Philistines, and of a great destruction of their images; also called 'Mount Perazim'
Adam Clarke's Commentary on 1 Chron 14:11 "Like the breaking forth of waters - "And David said, The Lord hath broken the enemies of David like to the breaking of a potter's vessel full of water."


10 David inquired of God, saying, “Shall I go up against the Philistines? And will You hand them over to me?” Then the Lord said to him, “Go up, for I will hand them over to you.” 11 So they came up to Baal-perazim, and David defeated them there; and David said, “God has broken through my enemies by my hand, like the breakthrough of waters.” Therefore they named that place Baal-perazim. 12 They abandoned their gods there; so David gave the order and they were burned with fire. 1 Chron 14:11 NKJV
==================================================

Out of curiosity - how did this come up??
Now I have more question's because,

1) a Philistine demon worshipped at Ekron" style="color: rgb(0, 138, 230);">1176 [e]
zə·ḇūḇ
זְבוּב֙
Baal-Zebub
Prep | N‑proper‑ms

baal in the Hebrew Context preceed's zebub, so in Context does baal and adonai mean the same thing? Can a Jewish reader respond.
 
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2BeholdHisGlory

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I think this is Contextual because it say David named it that in english.

Take 2 Sam 6:6 for example

2 Sam 6:6 And when they came to Nachon's threshingfloor, Uzzah put forth his hand to the ark of God, and took hold of it; for the oxen shook it.

2Sam 6:7 And the anger of the LORD was kindled against Uzzah; and God smote him there for his error; and there he died by the ark of God.

2 Sam 6:8 And David was displeased, because the LORD had made a breach upon Uzzah: and he called the name of the place Perezuzzah to this day.

Perez-uzza = "breach of Uzza"

So at least in this one he come to what is called Nachon's threshingfloor, and then called the place by another name given the incident itself (Perezuzzah) that is at least shown.
 
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Jesusfann777888

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CAN A JEWISH READER CLARIFY:


zə·ḇūḇ
זְבוּב֙
baal-zebub
Prep | N‑proper‑ms

Adonai ( אֲדֹנָי‎, lit. "My Lords") is the plural form of adon ("Lord") along with the first-person singular pronoun enclitic. As with Elohim, Adonai's grammatical form is usually explained as a plural of majesty. In the Hebrew Bible, it is nearly always used to refer to God (approximately 450 occurrences).

2.) Why is there not a proper translation of אֵלִיָּֽה as eli-yah, in english?

e·lî·yāh.
אֵלִיָּֽה

3.) If יְהוָ֗ה is
YAHWEH, then why are adonai and

פְּרָצִים֮
baal-perazim

זְבוּב֙
baal-zebub

hā·’ĕ·lō·hîm
הָֽאֱלֹהִ֧ים
God

are the similarities in spelling that use Hebrew Consonant'S Simply phonetic?
 
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Jesusfann777888

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Okay, your going to get into all the baal's stuff, so I will unwatch the thread, have a good conversation.

I'm trying to make sure that The Bible wasn't altered and this is how, it's not wrong to research. Way too offended.
 
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2BeholdHisGlory

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I'm trying to make sure that The Bible wasn't altered and this is how, it's not wrong to research. Way too offended.
I am not offended in the least, I am just disinterested in the topic.
Try not to jump to conclusions about people. I am pretty hard to offend actually.
Okay, now I am unwatching the thread, I didn't click the unwatch.
Enjoy the conversation.
 
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