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"And again, when he bringeth in the firstbegotten into the world, he saith, And let all the angels of God worship him." Hebrews 1:6 KJV 1900
v6 quotes Deut. 32:43 which in the KJV 1900 actually reads:
"Rejoice, O ye nations, with his people:
For he will avenge the blood of his servants,
And will render vengeance to his adversaries,
And will be merciful unto his land, and to his people." Deut. 32:43 KJV 1900
The quote in Hebrews 1:6, "let all the angels of God worship him", is not found in the Hebrew the KJV is based upon, but comes from the Greek Septuagint, LXXE
"Rejoice, ye heavens, with him, and let all the angels of God worship him; rejoice ye Gentiles, with his people, and let all the sons of God strengthen themselves in him; for he will avenge the blood of his sons, and he will render vengeance, and recompense justice to his enemies, and will reward them that hate him; and the Lord shall purge the land of his people." (Deut 32:43 LXXE)
1. If the writer of Hebrews quotes Dt.32:43 from the LXX, 'he saith' he approves it as inspired.
2. If any KJV does not have this quote in Dt. 32:43 it is not God's perfect preserved word.
3. Who has the authority to say the KJV 1900 is God's perfect preserved word if no KJV is?
I value and use the KJV, but I cannot understand the reasoning behind any form of KJV Only.
v6 quotes Deut. 32:43 which in the KJV 1900 actually reads:
"Rejoice, O ye nations, with his people:
For he will avenge the blood of his servants,
And will render vengeance to his adversaries,
And will be merciful unto his land, and to his people." Deut. 32:43 KJV 1900
The quote in Hebrews 1:6, "let all the angels of God worship him", is not found in the Hebrew the KJV is based upon, but comes from the Greek Septuagint, LXXE
"Rejoice, ye heavens, with him, and let all the angels of God worship him; rejoice ye Gentiles, with his people, and let all the sons of God strengthen themselves in him; for he will avenge the blood of his sons, and he will render vengeance, and recompense justice to his enemies, and will reward them that hate him; and the Lord shall purge the land of his people." (Deut 32:43 LXXE)
1. If the writer of Hebrews quotes Dt.32:43 from the LXX, 'he saith' he approves it as inspired.
2. If any KJV does not have this quote in Dt. 32:43 it is not God's perfect preserved word.
3. Who has the authority to say the KJV 1900 is God's perfect preserved word if no KJV is?
I value and use the KJV, but I cannot understand the reasoning behind any form of KJV Only.