Can you be saved not believing Jesus is God?

Can a person that believes Jesus is the Son, but not God be saved?

  • Yes, I believe so.

    Votes: 22 37.9%
  • No, don't think so.

    Votes: 33 56.9%
  • Other

    Votes: 3 5.2%

  • Total voters
    58

aiki

Regular Member
Feb 16, 2007
10,874
4,348
Winnipeg
✟236,528.00
Country
Canada
Faith
Baptist
Marital Status
Married
What do you think? Can a person that believes Jesus is the Son, but not God be saved?

Romans 10:9-13 (NASB)
9 that if you confess with your mouth Jesus as Lord, and believe in your heart that God raised Him from the dead, you will be saved;
10 for with the heart a person believes, resulting in righteousness, and with the mouth he confesses, resulting in salvation.
11 For the Scripture says, "WHOEVER BELIEVES IN HIM WILL NOT BE DISAPPOINTED."
12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; for the same Lord is Lord of all, abounding in riches for all who call on Him;
13 for "WHOEVER WILL CALL ON THE NAME OF THE LORD WILL BE SAVED."

Colossians 1:13-20 (NASB)
13 For He rescued us from the domain of darkness, and transferred us to the kingdom of His beloved Son,
14 in whom we have redemption, the forgiveness of sins.
15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation.
16 For by Him all things were created, both in the heavens and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities—all things have been created through Him and for Him.
17 He is before all things, and in Him all things hold together.
18 He is also head of the body, the church; and He is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead, so that He Himself will come to have first place in everything.
19 For it was the Father's good pleasure for all the fullness to dwell in Him,
20 and through Him to reconcile all things to Himself, having made peace through the blood of His cross; through Him, I say, whether things on earth or things in heaven.

Colossians 2:8-9 (NASB)
8 See to it that no one takes you captive through philosophy and empty deception, according to the tradition of men, according to the elementary principles of the world, rather than according to Christ.
9 For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form,

To believe in Jesus as Saviour but not as God, is to believe in another Jesus, a Jesus not of Scripture, who, not being God, cannot serve as the perfect once-for-all atonement for the sin of all mankind. There is salvation only in the Jesus revealed to us in the Bible (John 14:6; Acts 4:12; 1 Timothy 1:25). No other version of Jesus will do; not the prophet-Jesus the Muslims put forward, nor the created-Jesus of the cults (JWs, Mormons, SDAs, etc.), nor the good-teacher-Jesus of the humanist/atheist. Only God incarnate in the Person of Christ can save. And he does, as we put our trust in him - not some lesser counterfeit.
 
Upvote 0

chad kincham

Well-Known Member
Mar 4, 2009
2,773
1,005
✟62,040.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Perhaps you can show the logic more explicitly, of how Titus 3:15 shows that repentance CAUSES regeneration. I don't see it there. I would also like to know how the notion of repentance uncaused by regeneration is possible in those who are slaves to sin, dead in sin, unable to submit to God's law and unable to please God. Reformed theology chimes right in with Titus 3:15.



1. Repentance is part of conversion so that our sins can be forgiven:

Act 3:19 Repent ye therefore, and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out, when the times of refreshing shall come from the presence of the Lord;

Above, note that repentance precedes sins being forgiven.

Same passage in ISV:

Act 3:18 This is how God fulfilled what he had predicted through the voice of all the prophets—that his Messiah would suffer.

Act 3:19 Therefore, repent and turn to him to have your sins blotted out,

2. Jesus said He came to call sinners unto repentance.
He certainly thought sinners were capable of repenting when they were yet sinners:

Luk 5:32 I came not to call the righteous, but sinners to repentance.

3. John the Baptist, who came to prepare the way of Jesus, the Lord, taught the principle that repentance is for the remission of sins, and didn’t teach that the remission of sins causes repentance:

Mar 1:4 John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins.

Mar 1:5 And there went out unto him all the land of Judaea, and they of Jerusalem, and were all baptized of him in the river of Jordan, confessing their sins.

4. In addition to the fact that Jesus came to call sinners unto repentance, in point number 2, He also said this after His resurrection:

Luk 24:46 And said unto them, Thus it is written, and thus it behoved Christ to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day:

Luk 24:47 And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem.

Reformed theology is chiming in with a warped chime.
 
Upvote 0

chad kincham

Well-Known Member
Mar 4, 2009
2,773
1,005
✟62,040.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
Romans 10:9-13 (NASB)
9 that if you confess with your mouth Jesus as Lord, and believe in your heart that God raised Him from the dead, you will be saved;
10 for with the heart a person believes, resulting in righteousness, and with the mouth he confesses, resulting in salvation.
11 For the Scripture says, "WHOEVER BELIEVES IN HIM WILL NOT BE DISAPPOINTED."
12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; for the same Lord is Lord of all, abounding in riches for all who call on Him;
13 for "WHOEVER WILL CALL ON THE NAME OF THE LORD WILL BE SAVED."

Colossians 1:13-20 (NASB)
13 For He rescued us from the domain of darkness, and transferred us to the kingdom of His beloved Son,
14 in whom we have redemption, the forgiveness of sins.
15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation.
16 For by Him all things were created, both in the heavens and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities—all things have been created through Him and for Him.
17 He is before all things, and in Him all things hold together.
18 He is also head of the body, the church; and He is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead, so that He Himself will come to have first place in everything.
19 For it was the Father's good pleasure for all the fullness to dwell in Him,
20 and through Him to reconcile all things to Himself, having made peace through the blood of His cross; through Him, I say, whether things on earth or things in heaven.

Colossians 2:8-9 (NASB)
8 See to it that no one takes you captive through philosophy and empty deception, according to the tradition of men, according to the elementary principles of the world, rather than according to Christ.
9 For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form,

To believe in Jesus as Saviour but not as God, is to believe in another Jesus, a Jesus not of Scripture, who, not being God, cannot serve as the perfect once-for-all atonement for the sin of all mankind. There is salvation only in the Jesus revealed to us in the Bible (John 14:6; Acts 4:12; 1 Timothy 1:25). No other version of Jesus will do; not the prophet-Jesus the Muslims put forward, nor the created-Jesus of the cults (JWs, Mormons, SDAs, etc.), nor the good-teacher-Jesus of the humanist/atheist. Only God incarnate in the Person of Christ can save. And he does, as we put our trust in him - not some lesser counterfeit.

I knew someone would chime in with Romans 10, that’s why I specifically pointed out that LORD in the NT is Kurios, not YWHW.

In the Old Testament they chose to translate the Tetragrammaton as LORD instead of YHWH, or Yahweh.

In the NT the word LORD is Kurios, not YHWH.

Kurios can mean master, or sir, or even mister - that word does not prove Jesus is God in Romans 10.

Here’s Albert Barnes commentary on that passage in Romans 10:

The Lord Jesus - Shalt openly acknowledge attachment to Jesus Christ. The meaning of it may be expressed by regarding the phrase “the Lord” as the predicate; or the thing to be confessed is, that he is Lord; compare Act 2:36; Php 2:11, “And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord.” Here it means to acknowledge him as Lord, that is, as having a right to rule over the soul.

Once again, show us one place where Jesus taught salvation by faith that He is God.

Quoting non salvational passages in the Bible that prove Jesus is God such as Colossians 2, does not prove that a brand new believer has to understand His divinity to be saved.

A new believer is a baby, and can only feed at first on the milk of the word, said Paul.

You are trying to say they must start out on meat even before the confess their faith to be saved, per Romans 10.

Babies can’t eat meat.

When Jesus taught how to be saved by faith in Him there’s no demand by Him for believing other than His being Gods son:

Joh 3:14 And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of man be lifted up:

Joh 3:15 That whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have eternal life.

For God So Loved the World

Joh 3:16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.

Joh 3:17 For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved.

Joh 3:18 He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.
 
Upvote 0

aiki

Regular Member
Feb 16, 2007
10,874
4,348
Winnipeg
✟236,528.00
Country
Canada
Faith
Baptist
Marital Status
Married
I knew someone would chime in with Romans 10, that’s why I specifically pointed out that LORD in the NT is Kurios, not YWHW.

In the Old Testament they chose to translate the Tetragrammaton as LORD instead of YHWH, or Yahweh.

In the NT the word LORD is Kurios, not YHWH.

Kurios can mean master, or sir, or even mister - that word does not prove Jesus is God in Romans 10.

Did someone say that it did? I cited a number of passages grounding the divinity of Christ biblically.

In any event, why would Jesus have the right to rule over anyone's soul as Lord, if he were not God?

Once again, show us one place where Jesus taught salvation by faith that He is God.

Christ's divinity, his full possession of the divine nature, is intrinsic to who he is (as the verses I posted show). Any Jesus, any Saviour, who is not God incarnate is another, lesser Jesus and Saviour, without the infinite divine nature necessary to properly atone for all of humanity's sin.

Isaiah 9:6
6 For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.


Quoting non salvational passages in the Bible that prove Jesus is God such as Colossians 2, does not prove that a brand new believer has to understand His divinity to be saved.

Obviously, I disagree. Knowing in whom a sinner places their trust for redemption is just as crucial as knowing why they must do so. Christ cannot be one's Saviour if he is not God; the two things are intimately and inextricably related.

A new believer is a baby, and can only feed at first on the milk of the word, said Paul.

That Jesus is God IS spiritual "milk." Jesus made no bones about his divine nature. It was a distinct part of his message, confirmed again and again by his many miracles:

John 8:58-59
58 Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.
59 Then took they up stones to cast at him...


Exodus 3:14
14 And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shall you say unto the children of Israel, I AM has sent me unto you.

Even John's Gospel begins, not by declaring we must all be saved, but by clarifying that Jesus was God:

John 1:1-4
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
2 The same was in the beginning with God.
3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.
4 In him was life; and the life was the light of men.

It is just part of the modern erosion of true, biblical Christianity that some "Christians" think Christ's deity is secondary to his role as Saviour.

 
Last edited:
Upvote 0

Bible Highlighter

Law of the Lord is perfect, converting the soul.
Supporter
Jul 22, 2014
41,433
7,859
...
✟1,187,903.00
Country
United States
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Married
[STAFF EDITED DELETED QUOTE]
I know how I was saved. I'm not clear about how we stay saved. I think we should admit we are sinners still, in need of grace and forgiveness.

I believe we must overcome mortal sin in order to be saved. Do you believe that we are sinners in the sense of committing mortal sin all the time (even in our continued walk with God)? If so, do you have Scripture verses to support your conclusion on this?
 
Upvote 0

zoidar

loves Jesus the Christ! ✝️
Supporter
Sep 18, 2010
7,164
2,606
✟877,432.00
Country
Sweden
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Private
I believe we must overcome mortal sin in order to be saved. Do you believe that we are sinners in the sense of committing mortal sin all the time (even in our continued walk with God)? If so, do you have Scripture verses to support your conclusion on this?

Sorry for not replying to your previous post. I was going to, just wanted to think it through. I will give you a reply tomorrow. See you then! God bless!
 
Upvote 0

Bible Highlighter

Law of the Lord is perfect, converting the soul.
Supporter
Jul 22, 2014
41,433
7,859
...
✟1,187,903.00
Country
United States
Faith
Non-Denom
Marital Status
Married
Sorry for not replying to your previous post. I was going to, just wanted to think it through. I will give you a reply tomorrow. See you then! God bless!

I perfectly understand. Thank you, and may God bless you, as well.


Side Note:

Take your time. No rush. Search the Scriptures on this topic with prayer (if need be) as long as you need.
 
Upvote 0

Mark Quayle

Monergist; and by reputation, Reformed Calvinist
Supporter
May 28, 2018
13,008
5,622
68
Pennsylvania
✟780,947.00
Country
United States
Faith
Reformed
Marital Status
Widowed
1. Repentance is part of conversion so that our sins can be forgiven:

Act 3:19 Repent ye therefore, and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out, when the times of refreshing shall come from the presence of the Lord;

Above, note that repentance precedes sins being forgiven.

Same passage in ISV:

Act 3:18 This is how God fulfilled what he had predicted through the voice of all the prophets—that his Messiah would suffer.

Act 3:19 Therefore, repent and turn to him to have your sins blotted out,

2. Jesus said He came to call sinners unto repentance.
He certainly thought sinners were capable of repenting when they were yet sinners:

Luk 5:32 I came not to call the righteous, but sinners to repentance.

3. John the Baptist, who came to prepare the way of Jesus, the Lord, taught the principle that repentance is for the remission of sins, and didn’t teach that the remission of sins causes repentance:

Mar 1:4 John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins.

Mar 1:5 And there went out unto him all the land of Judaea, and they of Jerusalem, and were all baptized of him in the river of Jordan, confessing their sins.

4. In addition to the fact that Jesus came to call sinners unto repentance, in point number 2, He also said this after His resurrection:

Luk 24:46 And said unto them, Thus it is written, and thus it behoved Christ to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day:

Luk 24:47 And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem.

Reformed theology is chiming in with a warped chime.

What I asked is how Titus 3:15 shows it.

However, for the sake of argument, going along with your apparent premise that these few passages you have posted show how Titus 3:15 shows it:

(1). Acts 3:19 does not show the repentance preceding the forgiveness, but the forgiveness being contingent on the repentance, much as 1 John 1:9 we see the forgiveness being contingent on the confession, yet there the Greek tense specifically implies the forgiveness was accomplished, completed, in the past. That is, then: If one does not repent, one has not been forgiven, as Reformed doctrine has always said. Nevertheless, forgiveness, confession and repentance, in whatever order they fall, are all the result of God's choice and quickening of the dead, i.e. regeneration.

(2). Luke 5:32 is a call for sinners to repent. But you say, "He certainly thought sinners were capable of repenting when they were yet sinners". This has not been demonstrated. You assume the call implies capability, yet the mind of the flesh is at enmity with God. It will not obey, and cannot, nor can it please God. There are even places where scripture shows the call to repentance and the truth itself, sometimes serves to harden (deafen, blind) the sinner even further. No, the lost must have a change of heart and mind before submitting to God.

(3). Mar 1:4 says, "...repentance for the remission of sins..." or in the KJV "...unto the remission of sins." The Greek preposition translated "for" or "unto" can mean many things. Even in English, "for" doesn't necessarily imply causation. Again, other Scripture passages are specific that repentance is not possible without God changing one's heart.

(4). Luk 24:47 only says concerning the subject, "...that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name..." It does not show a sequence at all, nor does it preclude the notion that regeneration causes all the rest of what accompanies salvation.
 
Upvote 0

Mark Quayle

Monergist; and by reputation, Reformed Calvinist
Supporter
May 28, 2018
13,008
5,622
68
Pennsylvania
✟780,947.00
Country
United States
Faith
Reformed
Marital Status
Widowed
Reformed theology rejects the Bible's position on salvation, by changing the meaning of passages like John 3:16, where even John Calvin says, that "whosoever" means "everyone without exception", which is hardly "Calvinistic" language! If, as here the Bible says, that Jesus Christ has died for the sins of the whole human race, then it is obvious to those who don't hold to Calvinistic theology, that Jesus' blood is available for the "whosoever" that He has died for! It is only by the "limitations" placed on Jesus' death by your "theology", that says that Jesus only died for "His sheep". This is unbiblical rubbish!
FWIW, In good ways and bad, what is called "Calvinism" is not identical to Calvin's belief and teachings. If, as you claim, "whosoever" means everyone without exception (i.e. that out of everyone that did, does or will exist whosoever believes will have eternal life) I have no objections --after all, I don't see how you (or Calvin himself) could have meant that absolutely everyone believed, believes or will believe-- but to use that to imply that John 3:16 says that Jesus has died for the sins of the whole human race is more than is warranted. Nevertheless, what does "for" mean? It is rather obvious in all Scripture, that there is only one way for ANYONE (of the whole human race) to be saved, so in that sense "for" can be used to say that he died for the world; but the question is moot here --that verse does not say he died for the whole world, but that he loved the world.

You didn't say it, but I think you meant to say that "whosoever" implies the elect and non-elect are equally likely to believe. It does not. It is true that whosoever believes will have everlasting life, but just who is that "whosoever"? Only those to whom God has granted mercy, and faith through regeneration --those he chose. Nobody else will come to believe in Christ.
 
Upvote 0
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums

Mark Quayle

Monergist; and by reputation, Reformed Calvinist
Supporter
May 28, 2018
13,008
5,622
68
Pennsylvania
✟780,947.00
Country
United States
Faith
Reformed
Marital Status
Widowed
Titus 3:15? :scratch:

What does that have to do with faith and regeneration? Maybe you quoted the wrong verse?
I wondered the same thing. It was not I who brought that verse into the argument.
 
  • Like
Reactions: zoidar
Upvote 0

chad kincham

Well-Known Member
Mar 4, 2009
2,773
1,005
✟62,040.00
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Married
FWIW, In good ways and bad, what is called "Calvinism" is not identical to Calvin's belief and teachings. If, as you claim, "whosoever" means everyone without exception (i.e. that out of everyone that did, does or will exist whosoever believes will have eternal life) I have no objections --after all, I don't see how you (or Calvin himself) could have meant that absolutely everyone believed, believes or will believe-- but to use that to imply that John 3:16 says that Jesus has died for the sins of the whole human race is more than is warranted. Nevertheless, what does "for" mean? It is rather obvious in all Scripture, that there is only one way for ANYONE (of the whole human race) to be saved, so in that sense "for" can be used to say that he died for the world; but the question is moot here --that verse does not say he died for the whole world, but that he loved the world.

You didn't say it, but I think you meant to say that "whosoever" implies the elect and non-elect are equally likely to believe. It does not. It is true that whosoever believes will have everlasting life, but just who is that "whosoever"? Only those to whom God has granted mercy, and faith through regeneration --those he chose. Nobody else will come to believe in Christ.

Jesus is the propitiation of our sins, and NOT just for ours, but for the sins of THE WHOLE WORLD.

He paid the price for sins of the whole world, but that’s only applied to those who receive Jesus, and who repent of their sins, separately from having faith.

But now we’re back to the fact that reformed doctrine is forced to claim that regeneration/grace is necessary to have faith, which is absolutely backwards - faith precedes grace, and is how we access grace - thus there’s absolutely no biblical support for grace preceding faith:

Rom 5:2 By whom also we have access by faith into this grace wherein we stand, and rejoice in hope of the glory of God.

And faith still comes by hearing the word of God, Romans 10:17, not from regeneration first.
 
Upvote 0

OzSpen

Regular Member
Oct 15, 2005
11,541
707
Brisbane, Qld., Australia
Visit site
✟125,343.00
Country
Australia
Faith
Baptist
Marital Status
Private
I am sure that a person can believe in the full Deity of Jesus Christ, and have an unbiblical view of His Death.

Bond-servant,

Could you please give a couple examples of this theology from published authors?

Thanks,
Oz
 
Upvote 0
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums

Bond-servant of Christ

Well-Known Member
Sep 15, 2020
535
211
62
Birmingham
✟21,487.00
Country
United Kingdom
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Private
but to use that to imply that John 3:16 says that Jesus has died for the sins of the whole human race is more than is warranted

Really? then read what Luke 22:20 says, where Judas was still at the table when Jesus gave the Lord's supper, and tells them ALL, "“This cup is the new covenant in My blood, which is shed for YOU", yes, including Judas! And Matthew, "Then He took the cup, and gave thanks, and gave it to them, saying, “Drink from it, all of you. For this is My blood of the new covenant, which is shed for many for the remission of sins." (26:27:28). Commenting on "many" used in Mark, this is what John Calvin says, "Which is shed for many. By the word many he means not a part of the world only, but the whole human race; for he contrasts many with one; as if he had said, that he will not be the Redeemer of one man only". Even the Reformed theologians John Gill and Matthew Henry, say in their commentaries, that Judas did take the Lord's Supper. Now, if as some assume, that Jesus did not die for Judas, who sadly is lost, then surely He would have waited a short while, and when Judas had left the room, Jesus would have given the Lord's Supper, to make sure that 1. Jesus did not use "all" to include Judas, and 2. that Judas would not have part-taken of the Supper, which represents the Body and Blood of the Saviour! It is "Reformed theology" that is WRONG, and not the Teachings of the Holy Bible, which IS Infallible!
 
Upvote 0

Bond-servant of Christ

Well-Known Member
Sep 15, 2020
535
211
62
Birmingham
✟21,487.00
Country
United Kingdom
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Private
Bond-servant,

Could you please give a couple examples of this theology from published authors?

Thanks,
Oz

very simple. the so called "reformed" theology teaches that Jesus Christ died only for the "elect", and the Holy Bible is clear, that Jesus died for "the whole human race", something that even John Calvin, who these claim to follow, teaches, that the "whosoever" in John 3:16, means, "everyone without exception", and that the "many" in Mark 14:24, is, "Which is shed for many. By the word many he means not a part of the world only, but the whole human race; for he contrasts many with one; as if he had said, that he will not be the Redeemer of one man only, but will die in order to deliver many from the condemnation of the curse.".
 
Upvote 0

OzSpen

Regular Member
Oct 15, 2005
11,541
707
Brisbane, Qld., Australia
Visit site
✟125,343.00
Country
Australia
Faith
Baptist
Marital Status
Private
very simple. the so called "reformed" theology teaches that Jesus Christ died only for the "elect", and the Holy Bible is clear, that Jesus died for "the whole human race", something that even John Calvin, who these claim to follow, teaches, that the "whosoever" in John 3:16, means, "everyone without exception", and that the "many" in Mark 14:24, is, "Which is shed for many. By the word many he means not a part of the world only, but the whole human race; for he contrasts many with one; as if he had said, that he will not be the Redeemer of one man only, but will die in order to deliver many from the condemnation of the curse.".

Bond-servant,

In my further investigation of Calvin on his view of the atonement, I discovered he was a fence-sitter. Sometimes he believed in universal atonement for the whole world and at other times it was limited to the elect. See my further research at: Was John Calvin a TULIP Calvinist?

Oz
 
Upvote 0
This site stays free and accessible to all because of donations from people like you.
Consider making a one-time or monthly donation. We appreciate your support!
- Dan Doughty and Team Christian Forums

Bond-servant of Christ

Well-Known Member
Sep 15, 2020
535
211
62
Birmingham
✟21,487.00
Country
United Kingdom
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Private
Bond-servant,

In my further investigation of Calvin on his view of the atonement, I discovered he was a fence-sitter. Sometimes he believed in universal atonement for the whole world and at other times it was limited to the elect. See my further research at: Was John Calvin a TULIP Calvinist?

Oz

then the poor man had problems making up his mind! His comments on John 3:16 are very clear

That whosoever believeth on him may not perish. It is a remarkable commendation of faith, that it frees us from everlasting destruction. For he intended expressly to state that, though we appear to have been born to death, undoubted deliverance is offered to us by the faith of Christ; and, therefore, that we ought not to fear death, which otherwise hangs over us. And he has employed the universal term whosoever, both to invite all indiscriminately to partake of life, and to cut off every excuse from unbelievers. Such is also the import of the term World, which he formerly used; for though nothing will be found inthe world that is worthy of the favor of God, yet he shows himself to be reconciled to the whole world, when he invites all men without exception to the faith of Christ, which is nothing else than an entrance into life.
 
Upvote 0