Look: EVERY scripture must fit with every other scripture. When I find something explained in 9 chapters, versus something explained in 9 verses, I will always take the 9 chapters for doctrine. They all MUST fit together with no problems. I find it so difficult to get around the two resurrections in Revelation being separated by TIME, I think it is impossible. I think they MUST be separated by time, so therefore impossible to happen at the same time. How can one disregard a verse? It is there just as surely as Rev. 20 is there. The question is, what did Jesus mean? I know from other scriptures he does NOT mean all resurrections happen at the same time. It is the 9 verses against the 9 chapters sort of thing.
5 But the rest of the dead did not live again until the thousand years were finished.
How can this be understood any other way? Do you just disregard this straightforward passage?
Can you show me where I said that the rest of the dead don't live again after the thousand years? I'm pretty sure I haven't. So, this is not equivalent to what you do with John 5:28-29 and turn one future time where all the dead are raised into 2 future times when the dead are raised.
You must have some secret way of putting these two verses together so they do not disagree with each other. Please, share your secret!
You only mentioned one verse (Rev 20:5), but I'm going to assume that you means Rev 20 verses 4 and 5. As I've mentioned many times I believe John saw the souls of dead believers and did not see their bodies and did not see them come to life but rather saw the souls living and reigning with Christ in heaven.
But what about the first resurrection is a question you might be asking. It's clear that you do not understand how I interpret Rev 20 as it relates to the mention of the first resurrection and the rest of the dead not living again until after the thousand years.
So, I'm going to cheat a bit here by copying and pasting a post I made that I saved from a different forum several years ago regarding this particular topic. To give you a short preview, my argument is based on understanding that the first resurrection itself is Christ's resurrection (read Acts 26:23) and all believers have part in His resurrection spiritually. The bodily resurrection of the dead in Christ is not specifically mentioned in Rev 20.
The following is pretty long, so I hope you have a good attention span.
The premil paradigm has believers being saved during a future earthly millennium and those people would avoid the second death without overcoming and/or without having part in the first resurrection (which premil sees as occurring on the day Christ returns). In the premil paradigm those who are alive and remain until the second coming of Christ would also avoid the second death without having part in the first resurrection since they would not need to be physically resurrected.
Here are the verses on which I'm basing my belief that one must overcome and have part in the first resurrection in order to avoid the second death, which is the result of being cast into the lake of fire (Rev 20:14):
Rev 20:6
Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years.
Rev 2:11 He that hath an ear, let him hear what the Spirit saith unto the churches;
He that overcometh shall not be hurt of the second death.
My belief is that the only way one overcomes and has part in the first resurrection is by being born of the Spirit. Here is a passage that supports the idea that being born of the Spirit (born of God) is necessary in order to overcome:
1 John 5
4For
whatsoever is born of God overcometh the world: and this is the victory that overcometh the world, even our faith. 5
Who is he that overcometh the world, but he that believeth that Jesus is the Son of God?
I don't think I'll get much argument there. And Jesus said that anyone "that overcometh shall not be hurt of the second death". So, it seems clear that overcoming and being born of God is necessary in order to avoid the second death.
But what would support the amil view is if it is also required to have part in the first resurrection in order to avoid the second death. And that is what I believe John is saying in Rev 20:6. I believe he is saying that it is
only on those who have part in the first resurrection that "
the second death hath no power". So, that would mean the first resurrection is something that all believers from all time have part in.
In the premil paradigm the physical resurrection of believers that occurs at Christ's coming would not fit that definition since there would be others after that who would not experience the second death despite not having had part in the first resurrection. Also, those who are alive and remain until the coming of Christ would not have part in the first resurrection in that case since they obviously would not need to be resurrected.
So, what resurrection could all believers from all-time have part in if that is a requirement for avoiding the second death? Christ's resurrection. Scripture teaches that His resurrection is the first resurrection.
Acts 26:23 That
Christ should suffer, and that he should be the first that should rise from the dead, and should shew light unto the people, and to the Gentiles.
1 Cor 15:20 But
now is Christ risen from the dead, and become the firstfruits of them that slept.
In what sense was Christ's resurrection the first? He was the first to be raised with an immortal body. How do believers have part in Christ's resurrection? Isn't it by believing in Him and being born of the Spirit of God, which is the same way that we overcome the world? Isn't there a direct relationship between overcoming and having part in the first resurrection since both are related to the way in which people avoid the second death?
Here are passages that speak in terms of being saved spiritually as being the way we have part in Christ's resurrection:
Rom 6
1What shall we say then? Shall we continue in sin, that grace may abound?
2God forbid. How shall we, that are dead to sin, live any longer therein?
3Know ye not, that so many of us as were baptized into Jesus Christ were baptized into his death?
4Therefore we are buried with him by baptism into death: that
like as Christ was raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in newness of life.
5For if we have been planted together in the likeness of his death, we shall be also in the likeness of his resurrection:
6Knowing this, that our old man is crucified with him, that the body of sin might be destroyed, that henceforth we should not serve sin.
7For he that is dead is freed from sin.
8Now if we be dead with Christ, we believe that we shall also live with him:
9Knowing that Christ being raised from the dead dieth no more; death hath no more dominion over him.
10For
in that he died, he died unto sin once: but in that he liveth, he liveth unto God.
11Likewise reckon ye also yourselves to be dead indeed unto sin, but alive unto God through Jesus Christ our Lord.
Eph 2
4But God, who is rich in mercy, for his great love wherewith he loved us,
5
Even when we were dead in sins, hath quickened us together with Christ, (by grace ye are saved; )
6And hath raised us up together, and made us sit together in heavenly places in Christ Jesus:
Passages like these make it clear that we spiritually have part in Christ's resurrection when we're saved and born of the Spirit. In my opinion there is no other way to avoid the second death but to have part in Christ's resurrection, which is the first resurrection. In the premil paradigm, it allows for some to avoid the second death without needing to have part in the first resurrection and I believe that contradicts Revelation 20:6.
I believe all people either have part in the first resurrection and avoid the second death/lake of fire as a result or they have part in the second death/lake of fire. I don't see that there are any exceptions. So, in other words, all people fall somewhere in one of two groups as described in the following two verses:
Rev 20:6
Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years.
Rev 21:8 But
the fearful, and unbelieving, and the abominable, and murderers, and whoremongers, and sorcerers, and idolaters, and all liars, shall have their part in the lake which burneth with fire and brimstone: which is the second death.
So, every person is either part of those who believe in Christ, overcome and have part in His resurrection and by doing so avoid the second death, or they are part of "the fearful, and unbelieving, etc." and "shall have their part in the lake which burneth with fire and brimstone: which is the second death".
One last thing to point out is that it says regarding those who have part in the first resurrection that "they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years.". We are priests of God and of Christ now, as the following passages show:
1 Peter 2
9But ye are a chosen generation,
a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light; 10Which in time past were not a people, but are now the people of God: which had not obtained mercy, but now have obtained mercy.
Rev 1
5And from
Jesus Christ, who is the faithful witness, and
the first begotten of the dead, and the prince of the kings of the earth. Unto him that loved us, and washed us from our sins in his own blood,
6And
hath made us kings and priests unto God and his Father; to him be glory and dominion for ever and ever. Amen.
It is not required to be physically resurrected from the dead in order to be made a priest of God and of Christ. We become a priest of God and of Christ when we're born again and that continues when we physically die and our souls and spirits go to be with Him in heaven. So, Rev 20:6 is not describing something that occurs as a result of being physically resurrected, but instead is describing something that occurs as a result of having part in Christ's resurrection. We have to take things like that into consideration when interpreting difficult passages like Rev 20.
Hopefully, you at least understand my interpretation of Rev 20 now instead of thinking I disregard it in favor of other passages. I do not do that. I don't disregard any passages.
28 Do not marvel at this; for the hour [Greek Hora: time - season] is coming in which all who are in the graves will hear His voice 29 and come forth—those who have done good, to the resurrection of life, and those who have done evil, to the resurrection of condemnation.
5 But the rest of the dead did not live again until the thousand years were finished.
It makes a HUGE difference when we consider the English text is translation from the Greek. Both do not occur in one hour's time! So this CAN fit with Rev. 20.
According to you, this is what Jesus was saying.
Do not marvel at this, for the thousand plus year season is coming in which all who are in the graves will hear His voice and come forth.
Sorry, but I don't believe that makes any sense. I believe He was clearly referring to a one time event and what you said here certainly doesn't change my mind on that. It's the same as what Paul said here:
Acts 24:15 and I have the same hope in God as these men themselves have, that
there will be a resurrection of both the righteous and the wicked.
Like Jesus, Paul only seemed to know of one future event of the resurrection of the dead where both the righteous and wicked will be resurrected at that time.
Here is now one commentary put it:
Gill's Commentary:
All will rise, but with a difference; the dead in Christ will rise first, in the morning of the resurrection, in the beginning of the thousand years, and therefore are here mentioned first; the rest the wicked, will not rise until the evening of that day, till the thousand years are ended, and therefore are spoken of last.
One thing is sure, both groups will rise, but not at the same time.
All I see here is Gill giving his opinion without backing up. Not very convincing.
I don't see how there is any basis for interpreting the beast of Rev 17 as being different than the beast of Rev 13.
Its very simple:
8 The beast that you saw was, and is not, and will ascend out of the bottomless pit and go to perdition.
This does not and cannot fit a human being. No human can rise up out of any bottomless pit. But the devil can. No human, such as Antiochus, could live back then, then rise out of the bottomless pit and live again. But demonic spirits could possess someone back then, like Antiochus, and then possess someone in our future, such as the AC Beast of chapter 13.
Did you notice that the FP could only do miracles when he was in close proximity to the Beast? Why is that? My guess is, Satan will have possessed the man of sin, and is INSIDE Him, hidden from view. So the FP has to be close to the Beast to be close enough to Satan inside the beast to assist the FP in his false miracles.
I'm sure this won't surprise you, but I disagree with all of that. How would you explain this beast having seven heads and ten horns if the beast is a demon?
Let me help you out here. Beasts are kingdoms in scripture as the following shows:
Daniel 7:23-24
23 “He gave me this explanation: ‘
The fourth beast is a fourth kingdom that will appear on earth. It will be different from all the other kingdoms and will devour the whole earth, trampling it down and crushing it.
So, you might want to consider trying again in determining how you should understand the identity of the beast.
