Sola Scriptura: Are the Scriptures Sufficient as a Rule of Faith?

Tradidi

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This thread is in reply to a double invitation by @Athanasius377 to a debate (here and here).

The topic I proposed was Sola Scriptura, but @Athanasius377 chose to limit the scope of the debate to the sufficiency of the Scriptures. So here we go.

Based on James White's definition of Sola Scriptura (here), which I believe most Protestants can agree with, here is the claim I would like to discuss:

Claim: "The Scriptures are sufficient to function as a Rule of Faith."

Challenge: Prove it!

Rules: Be charitable and respectful, stick to the topic, be as brief and clear as possible.
 

ewq1938

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Sola Scriptura in the bible:

Act 17:11 These were more noble than those in Thessalonica, in that they received the word with all readiness of mind, and searched the scriptures daily, whether those things were so.
 
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thecolorsblend

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Sola Scriptura in the bible:

Act 17:11 These were more noble than those in Thessalonica, in that they received the word with all readiness of mind, and searched the scriptures daily, whether those things were so.
That passage literally argues against "sola scriptura".
 
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ewq1938

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That passage literally argues against "sola scriptura".

No, it shows people searching the scriptures to make sure something is correct so it is an example of Sola Scriptura.
 
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thecolorsblend

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No, it shows people searching the scriptures to make sure something is correct so it is an example of Sola Scriptura.
They accepted doctrine given to them orally and then they ensured that it aligned with Sacred Scripture.

If you want to see something akin to "sola scriptura", go back a passage or two when the Jews of Thessalonica ran St. Paul out on a rail. That was "sola scriptura" in action. The Bereans? They accepted St. Paul's oral teaching. Spin that any way you want. But they accepted oral teaching.

That's not "sola scriptura".
 
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ewq1938

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They accepted doctrine given to them orally and then they ensured that it aligned with Sacred Scripture.

If you want to see something akin to "sola scriptura", go back a passage or two when the Jews of Thessalonica ran St. Paul out on a rail. That was "sola scriptura" in action. The Bereans? They accepted St. Paul's oral teaching. Spin that any way you want. But they accepted oral teaching.

Only because they made sure it was in line with scripture. That's Sola Scriptura in action and preserved forever in the bible. What they did not do is simply accept was was taught and not check the scriptures to see if it was true. As you said, "they ensured that it aligned with Sacred Scripture".
 
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Lost4words

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Sola Scriptura is a modern invention.

Oral teaching was the main for hundreds of years. The ordinary person firstly, was rather illiterate and secondly there was not enough written material to go around 'everyone'.

People always needed someone to 'interpret' scripture for them. This has continued from the Apostles.
 
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Gregory Thompson

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This thread is in reply to a double invitation by @Athanasius377 to a debate (here and here).

The topic I proposed was Sola Scriptura, but @Athanasius377 chose to limit the scope of the debate to the sufficiency of the Scriptures. So here we go.

Based on James White's definition of Sola Scriptura (here), which I believe most Protestants can agree with, here is the claim I would like to discuss:

Claim: "The Scriptures are sufficient to function as a Rule of Faith."

Challenge: Prove it!

Rules: Be charitable and respectful, stick to the topic, be as brief and clear as possible.
I'd say it isn't because the scripture describes processes to get wisdom that don't involve the book.
 
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Rescued One

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Sola Scriptura in the bible:

Act 17:11 These were more noble than those in Thessalonica, in that they received the word with all readiness of mind, and searched the scriptures daily, whether those things were so.

AND:

2 Timothy 3
15 And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus. 16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: 17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.
 
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Radagast

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They accepted doctrine given to them orally and then they ensured that it aligned with Sacred Scripture.

No, they checked it against Sacred Scripture.

If you want to see something akin to "sola scriptura", go back a passage or two when the Jews of Thessalonica ran St. Paul out on a rail. That was "sola scriptura" in action.

Abusive, uncharitable, and false.
 
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thecolorsblend

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No, they checked it against Sacred Scripture.
The relevant issue is they accepted oral teaching.

The Bereans did not practice "sola scriptura". Because it's a man-made doctrine and they were of a more noble character.
 
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Rescued One

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I'd say it isn't because the scripture describes processes to get wisdom that don't involve the book.

James 1
5If any of you lack wisdom, let him ask of God, that giveth to all men liberally, and upbraideth not; and it shall be given him. 6But let him ask in faith, nothing wavering. For he that wavereth is like a wave of the sea driven with the wind and tossed. 7For let not that man think that he shall receive any thing of the Lord.
 
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thecolorsblend

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AND:

2 Timothy 3
15 And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus. 16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: 17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.
Hey, when you get a minute, can you post the scripture saying "scripture should be one's sole authority"? Thx.
 
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Gregory Thompson

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The relevant issue is they accepted oral teaching.

The Bereans did not practice "sola scriptura". Because it's a man-made doctrine and they were of a more noble character.
I think another good point is the reason why the bereans checked the scripture - it is because it was common practice back then for the messenger to explain from the prophets, that Jesus is the anointed.

They were noble not so much for checking the scripture, but checking what Paul was referring to, to see that Paul didn't make it up.
 
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ewq1938

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The relevant issue is they accepted oral teaching.

They didn't accept the teaching until they checked it against scripture. They allowed him to teach, receiving his teaching and then they double checked it to make sure it was scripturally sound. It is incorrect to say they accepted it/agreed with it because of the fact that they checked it against what is taught in scripture.
 
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Gregory Thompson

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James 1
5If any of you lack wisdom, let him ask of God, that giveth to all men liberally, and upbraideth not; and it shall be given him. 6But let him ask in faith, nothing wavering. For he that wavereth is like a wave of the sea driven with the wind and tossed. 7For let not that man think that he shall receive any thing of the Lord.
Like that.

Romans 1
19 ¶ Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them.
20 For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse.

Apparently parable teaching from the creation works for a reason.
 
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ewq1938

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They were noble not so much for checking the scripture, but checking what Paul was referring to, to see that Paul didn't make it up.

Which is the same thing so they were called noble for checking the scripture to see if his teachings were scripturally sound.
 
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Gregory Thompson

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Which is the same thing so they were called noble for checking the scripture to see if his teachings were scripturally sound.
No, there's a nuance there -

It was noble for unbelievers. However, those who have the Holy Spirit already know.
 
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Carl Emerson

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Rev 22

“Do not seal up the words of the prophecy of this book, for the time is near. 11“Let the one who does wrong, still do wrong; and the one who is filthy, still be filthy; and let the one who is righteous, still practice righteousness; and the one who is holy, still keep himself holy.”

12“Behold, I am coming quickly, and My reward is with Me, to render to every man according to what he has done. 13“I am the Alpha and the Omega, the first and the last, the beginning and the end.”

14Blessed are those who wash their robes, so that they may have the right to the tree of life, and may enter by the gates into the city. 15Outside are the dogs and the sorcerers and the immoral persons and the murderers and the idolaters, and everyone who loves and practices lying.

16“I, Jesus, have sent My angel to testify to you these things for the churches. I am the root and the descendant of David, the bright morning star.”

17The Spirit and the bride say, “Come.” And let the one who hears say, “Come.” And let the one who is thirsty come; let the one who wishes take the water of life without cost.

18I testify to everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this book: if anyone adds to them, God will add to him the plagues which are written in this book; 19and if anyone takes away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God will take away his part from the tree of life and from the holy city, which are written in this book.

What do you suppose is "the book"
 
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Philip_B

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What do you suppose is "the book"
The Revelation of St John The Divine.

To extend the meaning to the canon of the New Testament, or to the canon of the Old Testament, or both, would be a difficult argument to make.

You can not assume that the author thought he was writing something to be encapsulated in a collection of writings.
 
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Dave L

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This thread is in reply to a double invitation by @Athanasius377 to a debate (here and here).

The topic I proposed was Sola Scriptura, but @Athanasius377 chose to limit the scope of the debate to the sufficiency of the Scriptures. So here we go.

Based on James White's definition of Sola Scriptura (here), which I believe most Protestants can agree with, here is the claim I would like to discuss:

Claim: "The Scriptures are sufficient to function as a Rule of Faith."

Challenge: Prove it!

Rules: Be charitable and respectful, stick to the topic, be as brief and clear as possible.
“All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness, that the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works.” 2 Timothy 3:16–17 (NCPB)
 
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