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How does this reconcile with the Scripture, "Not that anyone has seen the Father, except the One who is from God; He has seen the Father" (John 6:46).
and:
"No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is Himself God and is at the Father's side, has made Him known" (John 1:18).
No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. John 1:18
This phrase is a figure of speech that simply means no one has fully understood or known God except Jesus and that's because Jesus is God's son.
Clarke:
It is likely that the word seen, here, is put for known, as in Joh_3:32; 1Jo_3:2, 1Jo_3:6, and 3Jo_1:11; and this sense the latter clause of the verse seems to require: - No man, how highly soever favored, hath fully known God, at any time, in any nation or age; the only begotten Son
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