I myself am not under the law

[DamianWarS]

Paul is quoted saying this in 1 Cor 9:20. My question is which law is he referring to? Torah/Mosaic law or something else?

 

[JIMINZ]

Paul is quoted saying this in 1 Cor 9:20. My question is which law is he referring to? Torah/Mosaic law or something else?

The word Law as used by Paul in the verse.

1 Cor. 9:20
And unto the Jews I became as a Jew, that I might gain the Jews; to them that are under the law, as under the law, that I might gain them that are under the law;

LAW:
G3551
νόμος
nomos
nom'-os
From a primary word νέμω nemō (to parcel out, especially food or grazing to animals); law (through the idea of prescriptive usage), generally (regulation), specifically (of Moses [including the volume]; also of the Gospel), or figuratively (a principle): - law.

In this verse Paul did not say "He was not under the Law"

 

[JIMINZ]

However, Paul did say this.

All being G3551

Rom. 6:14,15
14) For sin shall not have dominion over you: for ye are not under the law, but under grace.
15) What then? shall we sin, because we are not under the law, but under grace? God forbid.

Gal. 5:18
But if ye be led of the Spirit, ye are not under the law.

 

[HARK!]

I just covered this topic here: UNDER THE LAW!

"Under the law"

Paul is the only one in the Bible who uses this phrase.

It's found 11 times in his writings.

Romans 3:19
(CLV) Ro 3:19
Now we are aware that, whatever the law is saying, it is speaking to those under the law, that every mouth may be barred, and the entire world may become subject to the just verdict of God,

Let's look at this very carefully. The law speaks to those under the law.

The law speaks so that every mouth in the entire world may become subject to YHWH's judgement.

As all are subject to YHWH's verdict; it appears that we have two groups here. One group is already subject to YHWH's judgement. The other would not be subject to YHWH's judgement in absence of his Torah.

The preceding verse serves to further define the behavior of those who are under the law:

(CLV) Ro 3:18
There is not fear of God in front of their eyes.

Why would we fear or loving Abba?

(CLV) Ex 20:20
Then Moses said to the people: Do not fear, for in order to probe you the One, Elohim has come, and in order that the fear of Him should come over your faces, that you may not sin.

What is sin?

(CLV) 1Jn 3:4
Everyone who is doing sin is doing lawlessness also, and sin is lawlessness.

==================================================
(CLV) Ro 6:14
For Sin shall not be lording it over you, for you are not under law, but under grace.

Which law?

Paul mentions at least 8 of them in this letter:

The Law of Faith (Ch 3)
A Different Law (Ch 7)
The Law of My Mind (Ch 7)
The Law of Sin (Sin's Law) (Ch 7)
God's Law (Ch 7)
The Spirit's Law of Life (Ch 8)
The Law of Sin and Death (Ch 8)
The Law of Righteousness (Ch 9)

I suppose that if sin is lording over you; then you are under The Law of Sin.

(CLV) Ro 6:15
What then? Should we be sinning, seeing that we are not under law, but under grace? May it not be coming to that!

Paul is telling us in no uncertain terms that we may not sin.

What is sin?

(CLV) 1Jn 3:4
Everyone who is doing sin is doing lawlessness also, and sin is lawlessness.

(CLV) Ro 7:7
What, then, shall we declare? That the law is sin? May it not be coming to that! But sin I knew not except through law. For besides, I had not been aware of coveting except the law said, "You shall not be coveting."

Surely The Law of Sin doesn't prohibit coveting.

The Law of YHWH does.
==================================================
(CLV) 1Co 9:20
And I became to the Jews as a Jew, that I should be gaining Jews; to those under (υπο) law (νομονas) under (υπο)law (νομονas) (not being myself under (υπο) law (νομονas) ), that I should be gaining those under (υπο) law (νομονas) ;


The Judaeans we're well familiar with YHWH's Law (Torah), but they were also practicing Works of Law.

I don't see "Works of Law" mentioned in the Torah. I don't see any mention of it by Yahshua. Where is Paul getting this?

It is mentioned 1 time in Romans and 6 times in Galatians.

It is also mentioned in the Qumran Scrolls.

Q394 (4QMMTa) 4QHalakhic Letter
Dead Sea Scrolls Project: 4QMMT

Definition of halacha
: the body of Jewish law supplementing the scriptural law and forming especially the legal part of the Talmud
Definition of HALACHA

Yahshua rebuked putting the traditions of men over the Torah.



(CLV) 1Co 9:21
to those without law as without law (not being without God's law, but legally (εννομος) Christ's), that I should be gaining those without law.

"Not being without," is a double negative. Paul is with YHWH's Law.


(CLV) 1Co 9:22
I became as weak to the weak, that I should be gaining the weak. To all have I become all, that I should undoubtedly be saving some.

Apart from the Judaeans the nations didn't even have the Torah
That said, just a few verses prior in this letter; Paul makes mention of the Torah:

Some misunderstand this passage.Paul was not a lawless crowd pleaser.

(CLV) Ga 1:10
For, at present, am I persuading men or God? Or am I seeking to please men? If I still pleased men, I were not a slave of Christ.

Acts 17:22-31 is an example of how Paul would put this behavior into practice.


(CLV) 1Co 9:
9 For in the law of Moses it is written: "You shall not muzzle the threshing ox.Not for oxen is the care of God!" 10 Or is He undoubtedly saying it because of us? Because of us, for it was written that the plower ought to be plowing in expectation, and the thresher to partake of his expectation."

HE'S SAYING THAT THE TORAH WAS WRITTEN BECAUSE OF US?


(CLV) 1Co 11:1
Become imitators of me, according as I also am of Christ.

==================================================

(CLV) Ga 3:19
What, then, is the law? On behalf of transgressions was it added, until the Seed should come to Whom He has promised, being prescribed through messengers in the hand of a mediator.

What law was added to what? Transgressions of what? Abraham had the law. The penal code for the land of Israel was added. Levitical priesthood was added. After the Seed (Yahshua) came; the Judaeans were exiled from the land, for rejecting YHWH's word in the flesh. The High Priesthood was transferred to Yahshua; as it is written.

(CLV) Ga 3:20
Now there is no Mediator of one. Yet God is One.

(CLV) Ga 3:21
Is the law, then, against the promises of God? May it not be coming to that! For if a law were given that is |able to vivify, really, righteousness were out of law.

YHWH's law is not against grace.

(CLV) Ga 3:22
But the scripture locks up all together under sin,

...because all have sinned.

The Law of Sin

that the promise out of Jesus Christ's faith may be given to those who are believing.

(CLV) Gn 15:6
Now Abram believed on Elohim, and He reckoned it to him for righteousness

(CLV) Gn 26:5
inasmuch as your father Abraham hearkened to My voice and kept My charge, My instructions, My statutes and My laws.

(CLV) Ja 2:22
You are observing that faith worked together with his works, and by works was faith perfected.

(CLV) Ja 2:23
And fulfilled was the scripture which is saying, Now "Abraham believes God, and it is reckoned to him for righteousness," and he was called "the friend of God."

(CLV) Ja 2:24
You see that by works a man is being justified, and not by faith only.

Obedience to YHWH's Law is the fruit of faith.

(CLV) Ga 3:23
Now before the coming of faith we were garrisoned under law, being locked together for the faith about to be revealed.

If we actually believe Yahshua; we will follow his example of obedience.


(CLV) Ja 2:14
What is the benefit, my brethren, if anyone should be saying he has faith, yet may have no works? That faith can not save him.

(CLV) Ja 2:22
You are observing that faith worked together with his works, and by works was faith perfected
==================================================

(CLV) Ga 4:4
Now when the full time came, God delegates His Son, come of a woman, come under law,

(CLV) Ga 4:5
that He should be reclaiming those under law, that we may be getting the place of a son.

Reclaiming them from what?

Paul makes it clear that those who are under the law, are those who have broken the law:

(CLV) Ro 1:5
through Whom we obtained grace and apostleship for faith-obedience among all the nations, for His name's sake,

(CLV) Ro 2:13
For not the listeners to law are just with God, but the doers of law shall be justified.
==================================================
(CLV) Ga 4:21
Tell me, you who want to be under law, are you not hearing the law?

Paul is asking why you would want to sin, knowing what YHWH's judgements will be.

(CLV) Ro 2:13
For not the listeners to law are just with God, but the doers of law shall be justified.
==================================================

(CLV) Ga 5:18
Now, if you are led by spirit, you are not still under law.

How can you break YHWH's laws being led by the spirit?

Let's look at this verse in a little more context.

(CLV) Ga 5:16
Now I am saying, Walk in spirit, and you should under no circumstances be consummating the lust of the flesh.

What is the lust of the flesh?

Here are some examples:

(CLV) Ga 5:19
Now apparent are the works of the flesh, which are adultery, prostitution, uncleanness, wantonness,

(CLV) Ga 5:20
idolatry, enchantment, enmities, strife, jealousies, furies, factions, dissensions, sects,

(CLV) Ga 5:21
envies, murders, drunkennesses, revelries, and the like of these, which, I am predicting to you, according as I predicted also, that those committing such things shall not be enjoying the allotment of the kingdom of God.


Yahshua set an example of how for us to behave in a way that is in the father's will.

(CLV) Ro 8:29
that, whom He foreknew, He designates beforehand, also, to be conformed to the image of His Son, for Him to be Firstborn among many brethren.

(CLV) Jn 16:7
"But I am telling you the truth. It is expedient for you that I may be coming away, for if I should not be coming away, the consoler will not be coming to you. Now if I should be gone, I will send him to you.

(CLV) Jn 16:8
And, coming, that will be exposing the world concerning sin and concerning
righteousness and concerning judging:

(CLV) Jn 16:9
concerning sin, indeed, seeing that they are not believing in Me;

(CLV) 1Co 11:1
Become imitators of me, according as I also am of Christ.

 

[ewq1938]

In this verse Paul did not say "He was not under the Law"

It's implied because he was seeking to convert those that were under the law of Moses. Paul was set free from that law and obeyed the law of Christ of the new covenant.

 

[JIMINZ]

It's implied because he was seeking to convert those that were under the law of Moses. Paul was set free from that law and obeyed the law of Christ of the new covenant.

We have all been set free from the Law, even as Paul was.

Rom. 7:4
Wherefore, my brethren, ye also are become dead to the law by the body of Christ; that ye should be married to another, even to him who is raised from the dead, that we should bring forth fruit unto God.

 

[DamianWarS]

The word Law as used by Paul in the verse.

1 Cor. 9:20
And unto the Jews I became as a Jew, that I might gain the Jews; to them that are under the law, as under the law, that I might gain them that are under the law;

LAW:
G3551
νόμος
nomos
nom'-os
From a primary word νέμω nemō (to parcel out, especially food or grazing to animals); law (through the idea of prescriptive usage), generally (regulation), specifically (of Moses [including the volume]; also of the Gospel), or figuratively (a principle): - law.

In this verse Paul did not say "He was not under the Law"

NIV
To the Jews I became like a Jew, to win the Jews. To those under the law I became like one under the law (though I myself am not under the law), so as to win those under the law.

the title of the OP is an exact quote.
μὴ ὢν αὐτὸς ὑπὸ νόμον
me on autos hypo nomon
[not] [being] [myself] [under] [law]

under is hypo. we still use this in english, often it's opposite (hyper) and technical. Words like hypothetical, hypocritical, hypoglycemia, etc... nomos is law. "hypo nomos" is under law. throw in "me" and you have "not under law"

 

[Oldmantook]

Paul is quoted saying this in 1 Cor 9:20. My question is which law is he referring to? Torah/Mosaic law or something else?

We can determine what Paul meant by what he himself practiced. Paul observed the Sabbath which of course is of the Law:
Acts 13:14 "on the Sabbath day they went into the synagogue and sat down"
Acts 13:44 "And the next Sabbath nearly the whole city assembled to hear the word of God."
Acts 16:13 "And on the Sabbath day we went outside the gate to a riverside, where we were supposing that there would be a place of prayer; and we sat down and began speaking to the women who had assembled."
Acts 17:2 "And Paul, as his manner was, went in unto them, and three Sabbath days reasoned with them out of the scriptures."
Acts 18:4,11 "And he reasoned in the synagogue every Sabbath." ... "And he continued there a year and six months, teaching the word of God among them."

Paul observed the Feast days which are also of the Law:
Acts 20:6 And we sailed away from Philippi after the days of the Unleavened Bread, and within five days we came to them at Troas, where we stayed seven days.
Acts 20:16 For Paul had decided to sail by Ephesus, so that it might not come upon him to spend time in Asia; for he was hastened, if it was possible for him, to be in Jerusalem on the day of Pentecost.

The phrase "I myself am not under the law" is a parenthetical statement found in the Alexandrian text but not found in the Majority text.

 

[DamianWarS]

We can determine what Paul meant by what he himself practiced. Paul observed the Sabbath which of course is of the Law:
Acts 13:14 "on the Sabbath day they went into the synagogue and sat down"
Acts 13:44 "And the next Sabbath nearly the whole city assembled to hear the word of God."
Acts 16:13 "And on the Sabbath day we went outside the gate to a riverside, where we were supposing that there would be a place of prayer; and we sat down and began speaking to the women who had assembled."
Acts 17:2 "And Paul, as his manner was, went in unto them, and three Sabbath days reasoned with them out of the scriptures."
Acts 18:4,11 "And he reasoned in the synagogue every Sabbath." ... "And he continued there a year and six months, teaching the word of God among them."

Paul observed the Feast days which are also of the Law:
Acts 20:6 And we sailed away from Philippi after the days of the Unleavened Bread, and within five days we came to them at Troas, where we stayed seven days.
Acts 20:16 For Paul had decided to sail by Ephesus, so that it might not come upon him to spend time in Asia; for he was hastened, if it was possible for him, to be in Jerusalem on the day of Pentecost.

Paul shows us his mission strategy in 1 Cor 9 so his keeping sabbath in Acts might be missionally motivated, that is unpacked in this text... a question may be asked "Paul, why do you keep sabbath?" To which he replies "to the Jew I become Jew..."

 

[not under law]

Paul is quoted saying this in 1 Cor 9:20. My question is which law is he referring to? Torah/Mosaic law or something else?

He is referring to not being under the law in respect of having no righteousness of observing the law handed down at Sania

 

[DamianWarS]

He is referring to not being under the law in respect of having no righteousness of observing the law handed down at Sania

is the reverse true as well? If one does not obverse the law handed down from Sinai then is there also no negative impact with regards to their righteousness? The same text tells us "To those not having the law I became like one not having the law" Since this is your CF handle "not under law" I would think this would be something you have thought about. Paul's point is missionally motivated but he's still trying to be clear going out of his way in this parenthetical about not being under law or about being lawful in Christ.

 

[not under law]

is the reverse true as well? If one does not obverse the law handed down from Sinai then is there also no negative impact with regards to their righteousness? The same text tells us "To those not having the law I became like one not having the law" Since this is your CF handle "not under law" I would think this would be something you have thought about. Paul's point is missionally motivated but he's still trying to be clear going out of his way in this parenthetical about not being under law or about being lawful in Christ.

Its hard isn't it. If we say failure to obey the law results in us not being righteous in God's sight, we must live under righteousness of obeying the law. That conflicts with Paul's message. But obviously Christians have no licence to sin. In verse21 Paul states he has become all things to all people in order to get them saved. I imagine he tells those who want to live under the law, believers obviously cannot go around blatantly disregarding God's laws/How God wants them to live. Then they will not ignore his preaching. And to those stressing they are not under law, he can tell them 'AMEN' believers have no righteousness of obeying the law. There is always it seems to me room, by not being over dogmatic to get people to listen to what you say

 

[DamianWarS]

Its hard isn't it. If we say failure to obey the law results in us not being righteous in God's sight, we must live under righteousness of obeying the law. That conflicts with Paul's message. But obviously Christians have no licence to sin. In verse21 Paul states he has become all things to all people in order to get them saved. I imagine he tells those who want to live under the law, believers obviously cannot go around blatantly disregarding God's laws/How God wants them to live. Then they will not ignore his preaching. And to those stressing they are not under law, he can tell them 'AMEN' believers have no righteousness of obeying the law. There is always it seems to me room, by not being over dogmatic to get people to listen to what you say

This is the question of the OP. When Paul uses law (at least here) does he mean Torah as in the first 5 books of the bible? Paul clearly states 2 things, he is not under law and is also not outside of the law of God (lit. not "unlawful" or "lawless" to God) and when he uses the latter he defines it through being under the law of Christ (lit. lawful to Christ).

If we are to take the entire missional strategy from v19-23 Paul mentions Jews, those under law, those not under law (lit. "unlawful" or "lawless"), and the weak. He repeats the same with each, in order to reach those identified groups he must become them so it becomes easily scalable. v21 can be applied to all that he is still lawful to Christ when with the Jews, when with those under the law, when with those outside of the law, when with the weak etc... He opens this whole strategy (v19) saying "I have made myself a slave to everyone, to win as many as possible" and closes with a similar sentiment (v22) "I have become all things to all people so that by all possible means I might save some" then finally (v23) "I do all this for the sake of the gospel, that I may share in its blessings."

So Paul is not under the law (as he explicitly states) but is lawful to Christ at the same time. There certainly may be points of overlap here but Paul seems to go out of his way with these terms and using the language of the NIV it would seem that "under law" is different than "under Christ’s law"

 

[not under law]

This is the question of the OP. When Paul uses law (at least here) does he mean Torah as in the first 5 books of the bible? Paul clearly states 2 things, he is not under law and is also not outside of the law of God (lit. not "unlawful" or "lawless" to God) and when he uses the latter he defines it through being under the law of Christ (lit. lawful to Christ).

If we are to take the entire missional strategy from v19-23 Paul mentions Jews, those under law, those not under law (lit. "unlawful" or "lawless"), and the weak. He repeats the same with each, in order to reach those identified groups he must become them so it becomes easily scalable. v21 can be applied to all that he is still lawful to Christ when with the Jews, when with those under the law, when with those outside of the law, when with the weak etc... He opens this whole strategy (v19) saying "I have made myself a slave to everyone, to win as many as possible" and closes with a similar sentiment (v22) "I have become all things to all people so that by all possible means I might save some" then finally (v23) "I do all this for the sake of the gospel, that I may share in its blessings."

So Paul is not under the law (as he explicitly states) but is lawful to Christ at the same time. There certainly may be points of overlap here but Paul seems to go out of his way with these terms and using the language of the NIV it would seem that "under law" is different than "under Christ’s law"

Paul's reference to not being under law refers to the law handed down at Sania. Not being under law refers to not being under righteousness of obeying that law. Paul refers to the moral part of that law as: The letter that kills/the ministry of death and condemnation(2Cor3:6-9 Ten Commandments) So he continually stresses the believers righteousness is faith in Christ, not being under(righteousness of obeying) the law.
What is Christ's law? Paul believed Christ's law was fulfilled by carrying each others burdens(loving them) Gal6:2 Jesus himself said he was giving the disciples a new commandment. To love one another. Paul, in romans13 wrote:
The commandments, ‘You shall not commit adultery,’ ‘You shall not murder,’ ‘You shall not steal,’ ‘You shall not covet,’a]' and whatever other command there may be, are summed up in this one command: ‘Love your neighbour as yourself.’ 10 Love does no harm to a neighbour. Therefore love is the fulfilment of the law. verses 9&10

It is impossible to follow a law if you like of loving others if you are under a law of obedience that brings righteousness/ten commandments. You would naturally focus on what brings righteousness/justification before God.

 

[Oldmantook]

Paul shows us his mission strategy in 1 Cor 9 so his keeping sabbath in Acts might be missionally motivated, that is unpacked in this text... a question may be asked "Paul, why do you keep sabbath?" To which he replies "to the Jew I become Jew..."

That is a possible explanation however the germane question is, is it the likely explanation? Paul of course being a Jew followed the Law. Jesus also followed the Law. The question is did Paul also teach others to follow the Law as he did and as Jesus did?
When they heard this, they praised God. Then they said to Paul: “You see, brother, how many thousands of Jews have believed, and all of them are zealous for the law. Acts 21:20

I doubt if all of these thousands of Jews were "missionally motivated" as was Paul. Paul demonstrated that he still abided by the Law when he took a Nazirite vow in v.26 to demonstrate that he was "living in obedience to the law" v.24. It does not reference missional motivatation. Lastly, v.25 showed what the gentile believers were to also do - which is part of the Law.

 

[DamianWarS]

That is a possible explanation however the germane question is, is it the likely explanation? Paul of course being a Jew followed the Law. Jesus also followed the Law. The question is did Paul also teach others to follow the Law as he did and as Jesus did?
When they heard this, they praised God. Then they said to Paul: “You see, brother, how many thousands of Jews have believed, and all of them are zealous for the law. Acts 21:20

I doubt if all of these thousands of Jews were "missionally motivated" as was Paul. Paul demonstrated that he still abided by the Law when he took a Nazirite vow in v.26 to demonstrate that he was "living in obedience to the law" v.24. It does not reference missional motivatation. Lastly, v.25 showed what the gentile believers were to also do - which is part of the Law.

It's not the thousands, it's Paul. He is missionally motivated (the thousands should be too but we don't know what they are thinking) and in Acts 21 "to a Jew he becomes a Jew..."

What's interesting about that line of "to the Jews I become a Jew" is that Paul was already a Jew yet he seems to have removed this identity only so he can step back in so that he may serve Jews. This is the strongest missional part revealing he has surrendered even his own identity to Christ but without hostility and steps back in as a minister among Jews as he is called to.

So there is no surprise that Paul immediately enters a Jewish identity to keep the peace, edify and encourage a Jewish community as this would be in line with his missional call he expounds upon in 1 Cor 9. Gentiles in Acts 21 don't seem to be under the same rules. The worry was that Paul was teachings Jews to forsake the law and not about what he was teaching Gentiles and Paul's subsequent actions and instructed upon him from the counsel in v23 "therefore do this what we tell you".

The verdict for Gentiles was "we wrote, having decided that they should abstain from meat sacrificed to idols and from blood and from what is strangled and from fornication." But there is no mention of law. Paul, in his Paul way, puts his own flavour into this as we read in his epistles about food being sacrificed to idols essentially deconstructing the verdict then putting it back together again such as what we see in 1 Cor 8. He does so diplomatically and uniquely is able to stress the value of not eating food sacrifices to idols but at the same time valuing the Corinthians without insulting them.

Acts 21 doesn't tell us Paul's motivation for keeping law outside of that he was instructed to by the counsel, but 1 Cor 9 does so one may answer the other. It does seem apparent that believing Jews kept a different way than believing Gentiles and that Paul was reacting to the needs of the community he was serving into and he does so willingly and humbly. It would seem according to 1 Cor 9 Paul did not see himself as a Jew but rather he saw Jews as his mission and so become a Jew "all for the sake of the gospel"

 

[Soyeong]

Paul is quoted saying this in 1 Cor 9:20. My question is which law is he referring to? Torah/Mosaic law or something else?

In 1 Corinthians 9:21, Paul said in a parallel statement that he was not outside God's law, but under the law of Christ, so he equated the Law of Christ with the Mosaic Law, which means that verse 20 couldn't be referring to the Mosaic Law, but rather it is referring to Jewish law. For example, in Acts 10:28, Peter said that it was against their law for a Jew to visit or associate with Gentiles, which is not a law that is found anywhere in the Mosaic Law. Christ lived in sinless obedience to the Mosaic Law and did not hypocritically preach something other than what he practiced, so it wouldn't make sense to think that the Law of Christ was something other than the Mosaic Law that he taught by word and by example. God is not in disagreement with himself about which laws we should follow, so the Law of Christ is the same as the Law of the Spirit and the Law of the Father, which was given to Moses.

 

[Soyeong]

Its hard isn't it. If we say failure to obey the law results in us not being righteous in God's sight, we must live under righteousness of obeying the law. That conflicts with Paul's message. But obviously Christians have no licence to sin. In verse21 Paul states he has become all things to all people in order to get them saved. I imagine he tells those who want to live under the law, believers obviously cannot go around blatantly disregarding God's laws/How God wants them to live. Then they will not ignore his preaching. And to those stressing they are not under law, he can tell them 'AMEN' believers have no righteousness of obeying the law. There is always it seems to me room, by not being over dogmatic to get people to listen to what you say

Righteousness is a character trait of God that is expressed by doing what is righteous and God's law is His instructions for how to express that character trait, not for how to attain it. When we have a character trait, then we will express it through our actions, so when God declares us to be righteous by grace through faith, He is also declaring us to be someone who expresses His righteousness through our actions in obedience to His instructions for how to do that found in His law. In other words, the reason that we have received the righteousness of God was not in order to hide it under a bushel, but in order to let it shine through our obedience. So the reason that we are to do what is righteous in obedience to God's law was never in order to result in us being righteous in God's sight, but rather we are to do that because we have been made righteous in God's sight.

The existence of sin requires there to be a standard of what is and is not sin and that stand is God's law (1 John 3:4), so Paul would not have been talking about sinning in order to reach sinners because that would have completely undermined his message to them. We are either under God's law and are obligated to refrain from sin or are not under God's law, have no obligation to refrain from sin, and have no need for Jesus to have given himself to redeem us from all lawlessness. However, God is sovereign, so we are all under His law and are obligated to refrain from sin, even those who are even in a covenant relationship with God, such as when God judged the world with the Flood because of their wickedness. They didn't get to choose whether or not they wanted to be under God's law, and neither do we, but the choice that we do get to make is whether we are going to heed the Gospel message, repent, and obey.

 

[DamianWarS]

In 1 Corinthians 9:21, Paul said in a parallel statement that he was not outside God's law, but under the law of Christ, so he equated the Law of Christ with the Mosaic Law, which means that verse 20 couldn't be referring to the Mosaic Law, but rather it is referring to Jewish law. For example, in Acts 10:28, Peter said that it was against their law for a Jew to visit or associate with Gentiles, which is not a law that is found anywhere in the Mosaic Law. Christ lived in sinless obedience to the Mosaic Law and did not hypocritically preach something other than what he practiced, so it wouldn't make sense to think that the Law of Christ was something other than the Mosaic Law that he taught by word and by example. God is not in disagreement with himself about which laws we should follow, so the Law of Christ is the same as the Law of the Spirit and the Law of the Father, which was given to Moses.

You have immediately associated God's law/Christ's law with the law of Moses and used this to define his previous comments as a different law however the text doesn't connect the dots this way.

The first time law is mentioned in this letter is earlier in this very chapter in v8 and in v9 Paul explicitly defines it as the law of Moses. Now in v20 he says "law" again but does not tell us explicitly which law it is. Because of the aforementioned context of the law of Moses if Paul is referencing another law he does so cryptically and arguably irresponsibly.

Paul also does not say the law of God or the law of Christ. He says literally he is not "lawless" to God but is "lawful" to Christ. He uses adjectives not like the previous "under law" which are separate words and uses "law" as a noun. What's the difference? Paul is not explicitly calling out a "law" in reference to God/Christ and he refers not being lawless to God but lawful to Christ. So Paul is being careful with his words so as not to invoke the noun "law"

I see there more cause in the context to view v20's "law" as the law of Moses than to infer it's something else simply because you cannot separate that being lawful to Christ means the law of Moses which the text never says. Let's get our conclusions from what the text tells us, not what you want the text to say.

 

[not under law]

Righteousness is a character trait of God that is expressed by doing what is righteous and God's law is His instructions for how to express that character trait, not for how to attain it. When we have a character trait, then we will express it through our actions, so when God declares us to be righteous by grace through faith, He is also declaring us to be someone who expresses His righteousness through our actions in obedience to His instructions for how to do that found in His law. In other words, the reason that we have received the righteousness of God was not in order to hide it under a bushel, but in order to let it shine through our obedience. So the reason that we are to do what is righteous in obedience to God's law was never in order to result in us being righteous in God's sight, but rather we are to do that because we have been made righteous in God's sight.

The existence of sin requires there to be a standard of what is and is not sin and that stand is God's law (1 John 3:4), so Paul would not have been talking about sinning in order to reach sinners because that would have completely undermined his message to them. We are either under God's law and are obligated to refrain from sin or are not under God's law, have no obligation to refrain from sin, and have no need for Jesus to have given himself to redeem us from all lawlessness. However, God is sovereign, so we are all under His law and are obligated to refrain from sin, even those who are even in a covenant relationship with God, such as when God judged the world with the Flood because of their wickedness. They didn't get to choose whether or not they wanted to be under God's law, and neither do we, but the choice that we do get to make is whether we are going to heed the Gospel message, repent, and obey.

Being raised in church, I used to look to written commandments and strive to obey them. Whether this was the ten commandments or Jesus teaching. I would focus on them and greatly desire to obey them, but if I am honest, those commands in truth showed me how guilty I was of so often failing to obey them. It made me very miserable much of the time, due to my faliures.
A few years ago, my mother whom I dearly loved was told by doctors she was dying of cancer. My wife and I went to look after her in her home for a while before the illness got too bad. During that time, I laid aside my own wants and desires, my joy was seeing my mother happy in the time she had left to live. Nothing was too much trouble to do for her. I loved taking her to see her friends, and bringing them to see her, I was so happy to see how much this meant to her. Taking her out to places she loved to go to made me as happy as it made her. If I had to carry anything for her, it would not bother me if I carried it one mile or two. I did not covet what was my mothers, I did not bear false witness against her, I did not want to murder her, steal from her and I honoured her. One evening I was standing outside her home, and it suddenly hit me that I was closer to the biblical ideal of how to live my life than I had ever previously done. I was obeying the moral law of the ten commandments where my mother was concerned, and obeying Christ's commands too. Why was I obeying the law? Did I look to the ten commandments and Christ's teaching and strive to obey them all concerning my mother? No! I never once thought of any of them where she was concerned. So why was I obeying them? Because I loved my mother greatly. Love really does fulfil the law.