the literal interpretation of scripture

[nolidad]

Hi and just where is the FATHER called a GROOM ?

If we are " in CHRIST " and are part of His BODY as Christ is the HEAD of that body , HOW DOES THE HEAD MARRY THE BODY ?

dan p

Straining at gnats!

The Bible calls us the espoused and Ephesians 5 refers to Jesus as groom and church as bride!

Rev. 19:7-8 tells of the wedding ceremony. There is nothing to say this is an analogy or parable OR SYMBOLIC! Other than ones predisposed bias against this passage.

And is anything to difficult for God????? How can a man drained of all HIs blood rise again? How can one take 5 loaves and 2 fishes and feed close to 20000 and have 12 baskets leftover? How can even a God simply speak and create everything we see? Our ability to understand or not understand biblical truth is irrelavent!

5 Trust in the Lord with all thine heart; and lean not unto thine own understanding.

6 In all thy ways acknowledge him, and he shall direct thy paths.

 

[Dan Perez]

Straining at gnats!

The Bible calls us the espoused and Ephesians 5 refers to Jesus as groom and church as bride!

Rev. 19:7-8 tells of the wedding ceremony. There is nothing to say this is an analogy or parable OR SYMBOLIC! Other than ones predisposed bias against this passage.

And is anything to difficult for God????? How can a man drained of all HIs blood rise again? How can one take 5 loaves and 2 fishes and feed close to 20000 and have 12 baskets leftover? How can even a God simply speak and create everything we see? Our ability to understand or not understand biblical truth is irrelavent!

5 Trust in the Lord with all thine heart; and lean not unto thine own understanding.

6 In all thy ways acknowledge him, and he shall direct thy paths.

Hi and I have never seen where the BODY OF CHRIST is ever mentioned in the book of the REVELATION , and interested where it is written ??

dan p

 

[nolidad]

Hi and I have never seen where the BODY OF CHRIST is ever mentioned in the book of the REVELATION , and interested where it is written ??

dan p

REv. 19:
7 Let us be glad and rejoice, and give honour to him: for the marriage of the Lamb is come, and his wife hath made herself ready.

8 And to her was granted that she should be arrayed in fine linen, clean and white: for the fine linen is the righteousness of saints.

9 And he saith unto me, Write, Blessed are they which are called unto the marriage supper of the Lamb. And he saith unto me, These are the true sayings of God.

2 Corinthians 11:2
For I am jealous over you with godly jealousy: for I have espoused you to one husband, that I may present you as a chaste virgin to Christ.

22 Wives, submit yourselves unto your own husbands, as unto the Lord.

23 For the husband is the head of the wife, even as Christ is the head of the church: and he is the saviour of the body.

24 Therefore as the church is subject unto Christ, so let the wives be to their own husbands in every thing.

25 Husbands, love your wives, even as Christ also loved the church, and gave himself for it;

26 That he might sanctify and cleanse it with the washing of water by the word,

27 That he might present it to himself a glorious church, not having spot, or wrinkle, or any such thing; but that it should be holy and without blemish.

28 So ought men to love their wives as their own bodies. He that loveth his wife loveth himself.

29 For no man ever yet hated his own flesh; but nourisheth and cherisheth it, even as the Lord the church:

30 For we are members of his body, of his flesh, and of his bones.

31 For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and shall be joined unto his wife, and they two shall be one flesh.

32 This is a great mystery: but I speak concerning Christ and the church.



Putting this together in can only be the church that marries the Lamb!

 

[Dan Perez]

REv. 19:
7 Let us be glad and rejoice, and give honour to him: for the marriage of the Lamb is come, and his wife hath made herself ready.

8 And to her was granted that she should be arrayed in fine linen, clean and white: for the fine linen is the righteousness of saints.

9 And he saith unto me, Write, Blessed are they which are called unto the marriage supper of the Lamb. And he saith unto me, These are the true sayings of God.

2 Corinthians 11:2
For I am jealous over you with godly jealousy: for I have espoused you to one husband, that I may present you as a chaste virgin to Christ.

22 Wives, submit yourselves unto your own husbands, as unto the Lord.

23 For the husband is the head of the wife, even as Christ is the head of the church: and he is the saviour of the body.

24 Therefore as the church is subject unto Christ, so let the wives be to their own husbands in every thing.

25 Husbands, love your wives, even as Christ also loved the church, and gave himself for it;

26 That he might sanctify and cleanse it with the washing of water by the word,

27 That he might present it to himself a glorious church, not having spot, or wrinkle, or any such thing; but that it should be holy and without blemish.

28 So ought men to love their wives as their own bodies. He that loveth his wife loveth himself.

29 For no man ever yet hated his own flesh; but nourisheth and cherisheth it, even as the Lord the church:

30 For we are members of his body, of his flesh, and of his bones.

31 For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and shall be joined unto his wife, and they two shall be one flesh.

32 This is a great mystery: but I speak concerning Christ and the church.



Putting this together in can only be the church that marries the Lamb!

Hi and the correct answer is when we are PLACED into CHRIST we ARE / ESTE forever as the Greek word in verse 28 is in the Greek PRESENT TENSE and in the INDICATIVE MOOD of a FACT as the PRESENT TENSE means CONTINUAL ACTION FOR EVER !!

And in Jer 3:8 Christ gave Israel a BILL OF DIVORCE and Christ has an EX - WIFE !!

dan p

 

[ewq1938]

And in Jer 3:8 Christ gave Israel a BILL OF DIVORCE and Christ has an EX - WIFE !!

dan p

Christ was not married in the OT so he has no ex-wife. That was the Father. This is partially why the church marries the Son and not the Father or the entire Trinity.

 

[nolidad]

Hi and the correct answer is when we are PLACED into CHRIST we ARE / ESTE forever as the Greek word in verse 28 is in the Greek PRESENT TENSE and in the INDICATIVE MOOD of a FACT as the PRESENT TENSE means CONTINUAL ACTION FOR EVER !!

And in Jer 3:8 Christ gave Israel a BILL OF DIVORCE and Christ has an EX - WIFE !!

dan p

Wrong on both accounts. It is Jehovah the Father who gave Israel a writing of divorcement. Israel had no knowledge of God the Son as of yet!

And present tense does not perpetual action.

1. PRESENT TENSE
In English, we know that the present tense describes something happening right now. It informs us of the time when an action takes place.

In Greek, however, the present tense primarily tells us the type of action. The Greek present tense indicates continued action, something that happens continually or repeatedly, or something that is in the process of happening. If you say, for instance, "The sun is rising," you are talking about a process happening over a period of time, not an instantaneous event. The Greeks use the present tense to express this kind of continued action.

In contrast, Greek uses the aorist tense to show simple action.

If you want to speak of continued action perpetually you would use the future perfect!

And verse 28 simply means individuals are still being added to the body- we are not continually being added to teh body of Christ! Once we are added we do not continually get re-added!

And though you are wrong- let us assume you are right about Jesus in the OT having an ex-wife. that still matters nothing! For the New covenant people of God (the church) is espoused to Jesus and in heaven in REv. 19 the marriage of the espoused takes place. UNless of course you think we just stay engaged forever and never get married to our bridgroom.

John 3:29
He that hath the bride is the bridegroom: but the friend of the bridegroom, which standeth and heareth him, rejoiceth greatly because of the bridegroom's voice: this my joy therefore is fulfilled.

One cannot be a bridegroom unless there is a future bride!

 

[DamianWarS]

This seems like something that should be non-controversial: scripture should be interpreted literally. I guess it's understandable that there are biblical passages that could pose difficulties, but some of the controversies are rather strange.

For example, the people who seem to think that if the Bible uses a metaphor, then that somehow refutes the notion of literal interpretation. I guess closely tied to that is the idea of "wooden literalism", that literal interpretation means we have to view all clearly metaphorical language in its most literal sense.

Literal interpretation does not mean that the Bible doesn't use literary devices, such as metaphors, similes, stories such a parables, and hyperbole. Very often, though, the non-literal character of this device will be clear. So, for example, when Jesus calls himself the door to the sheep fold, we would not be smart to think of him as a something like a hinged wooden plank. But the metaphor does give us some truths about him, that he protects his sheep.

I mostly agree... except pre-Abrahamic accounts which are also pre-history. I'm not sure if they are literal or not and I think the question actually is the most uninteresting part of the accounts.

 

[nolidad]

I mostly agree... except pre-Abrahamic accounts which are also pre-history. I'm not sure if they are literal or not and I think the question actually is the most uninteresting part of the accounts.

Per Abrahamic accounts are not pre history. There is nothing to say that from Adam to Abraham there was not written language as well as the passing of history through rote! Abraham (Abram) while he was in Ur of the Chaldees had a robust written language complete with math, so it was developed and used before Abraham.

 

[JohnAshton]

Evidence clearly exists that mankind existed before Adam and Eve.

That means prophets most probably did as well.

 

[DamianWarS]

Per Abrahamic accounts are not pre history. There is nothing to say that from Adam to Abraham there was not written language as well as the passing of history through rote! Abraham (Abram) while he was in Ur of the Chaldees had a robust written language complete with math, so it was developed and used before Abraham.

perhaps but where are they? Even the accounts of Abraham himself are not penned until long after his death. I don't include him because there is no suspicion that the Hebrews knew their own story and knew it very well. But everything before him is different, I call it prehistory because in practice that's what it is and at the very least it's prehistory for the Hebrews. So I am unsure if they are literal or not.

 

[nolidad]

perhaps but where are they? Even the accounts of Abraham himself are not penned until long after his death. I don't include him because there is no suspicion that the Hebrews knew their own story and knew it very well. But everything before him is different, I call it prehistory because in practice that's what it is and at the very least it's prehistory for the Hebrews. So I am unsure if they are literal or not.

They have discovered cuneiform tablets in UR and even with Abrams' name on them. So unless you posit that written language sprung up miraculously all over in a day, this means that writing had been going on long before Abraham.

Also We must remember that Moses was the editor of Genesis not its author. He had the compilation of many stiels, and writings with him as well as oral traditions. God simply guided HIm as to what to include in Scripture.

 

[nolidad]

Evidence clearly exists that mankind existed before Adam and Eve.

That means prophets most probably did as well.

So you hold the bible a lie then.

 

[JohnAshton]

JohnAshton said: Evidence clearly exists that mankind existed before Adam and Eve. That means prophets most probably did as well.

So you hold the bible a lie then.

You might believe that, nolidad, if you are a binary thinker. I don't. I certainly believe much of the OT is not literal.

 

[nolidad]

JohnAshton said: Evidence clearly exists that mankind existed before Adam and Eve. That means prophets most probably did as well.

You might believe that, nolidad, if you are a binary thinker. I don't. I certainly believe much of the OT is not literal.

Well that is your privilege. But it is not evidence, but the bias in reading the evidence that causes people to think of a pre-Adamic humanity.

Jesus called Adam and Eve, the beginning of Creation, perhaps He was mistaken as well according to you?

BTW I am not a binary thinker. So you are a non biblical believer.

 

[JohnAshton]

The question is of unsurmountable primary evidence not faith belief.

 

[JohnAshton]

Your statement above is not evidence of anything, nolidad. other than what you think, which is your privilege to believe. Please do not impute beliefs to me the which you have no idea.

The OT is pieced together by document from the last two thousand years or so. On the other hand, we have primary evidence and artifacts that mankind first started agricultural settlements some three thousand years before the dating of Adam and Eve. Those are insurmountable, objective facts. Those supporting A&E are not primary but secondary sources, including Jesus reported statements.

We have only narratives down to Abraham, and the argument is fierce as to the historical figure of an "Abraham" character who really lived. I happen to believe he did but that is merely my belief. I also believe the David character existed.

 

[coffee4u]

JohnAshton said: Evidence clearly exists that mankind existed before Adam and Eve.

What evidence?

 

[JohnAshton]

Jarmo Neolithic village archaeological site (7,000 B.C.) Jarmo is an archeological site located in Iraqi kurdistan on the foothills of the Zagros Mountains. For a long time it was known as the oldest known agricultural community in the world, dating back to 7000 BC.
Jarmo Neolithic village archaeological site (7,000 B.C ...
www.skyscrapercity.com/showthread.php?t=1321345

or

Oldest known farming village discovered in Egypt - SFGate
https://www.sfgate.com/news/article/Oldest-known-farming-village-discovered-in-Egypt...
Archaeologists have discovered the oldest known farming village in Egypt, a 7,000-year-old site whose residents grew wheat and barley, and raised sheep, goats and pigs. The new discovery, in the ...

 

[JohnAshton]

My own belief is that before agricultural villages existed that hunter-gatherer groups roamed the earth.

 

[coffee4u]

My own belief is that before agricultural villages existed that hunter-gatherer groups roamed the earth.

The Bible says people worked the soil and raised animals since the beginning.
Genesis 4
2 Now Abel kept flocks, and Cain worked the soil.

Doesn't mean everyone did, no reason why there couldn't also be hunter-gatherer cultures.

Also how does that site prove another creation before Adam and Eve?