Catholics, why is it necessary to believe that Mary was immaculately conceived?

[Shimokita]

The Jews were a very prudish people, so much so that the language even lacked words for certain body parts and functions so they had to resort to euphemisms. One such is "He did not know her until she brought forth her first born son". Knowing her is a very clear reference to sexual intercourse but not necessarily conception. This being said, I strongly suspect that the story is heavily laden with symbolism.

"Until" as used in the original language does not imply anything about what happens after the event. Explained here, and you can find other explanations of that on the web:

The Case for Mary’s Perpetual Virginity

Until Then
Scripture’s statement that Joseph “knew [Mary] not until she brought forth her firstborn” would not necessarily mean they did “know” each other after she brought forth Jesus. Until is often used in Scripture as part of an idiomatic expression similar to our own usage in English. I may say to you, “Until we meet again, God bless you.” Does that necessarily mean after we meet again, God curse you? By no means. A phrase like this is used to emphasize what is being described before the until is fulfilled. It is not intended to say anything about the future beyond that point. Here are some biblical examples:

• 2 Samuel 6:23: And Michal the daughter of Saul had no child to (until) the day of her death. (Does this mean she had children after she died?)
• 1 Timothy 4:13: Until I come, attend to the public reading of scripture, to preaching, to teaching. (Does this mean Timothy should stop teaching after Paul comes?)
• 1 Corinthians 15:25: For he (Christ) must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. (Does this mean Christ’s reign will end? By no means! Luke 1:33 says, “he will reign over the house of Jacob forever and of his kingdom there shall be no end.”)

In recent years, some have argued that because Matthew 1:25 uses the Greek words heos hou for “until” whereas the texts I mentioned above from the New Testament use heos alone, there is a difference in meaning. The argument goes that Heos hou indicates the action of the first clause does not continue. Thus, Mary and Joseph “not having come together” would have ended after Jesus was born.

The problems with this theory begin with the fact that no available scholarship concurs with it. In fact, the evidence proves the contrary. Heos hou and heos are used interchangeably and have the same meaning. Acts 25:21 should suffice to clear up the matter: “But when Paul had appealed to be kept in custody for the decision of the emperor, I commanded him to be held until (Gk. heos hou) I could send him to Caesar.”

Does this text mean that Paul would not be held in custody after he was “sent” to Caesar? Not according to the biblical record. He would be held in custody while in transit (see Acts 27:1) and after he arrived in Rome for a time (see Acts 29:16). The action of the main clause did not cease with heos hou.

 

[GodLovesCats]

You make excellent points! To my understanding Catholic teachings really diminish the cross. If sacraments and whatnot save us, why did Jesus die?

This is exactly how I feel about both the obsession with Mary and confessions. If confessing sins to priests on the phone in a sanctuary was necessary to be forgiven, everyone who says Jesus forgave us already is calling God a liar. Does hte Bible not clearly state all of our sins were forgiven on Crucifixion Day?

 

[doctorwho29]

This is exactly how I feel about both the obsession with Mary and confessions. If confessing sins to priests on the phone in a sanctuary was necessary to be forgiven, everyone who says Jesus forgave us already is calling God a liar. Does hte Bible not clearly state all of our sins were forgiven on Crucifixion Day?

It does say that, yes. Also Purgatory...so unbiblical

 

[Jonathan Mathews]

The immaculate conception is that Jesus was born without sin, not Mary. Mary inherited sin from her father. Jesus' Father was God. He inherited not sin, which is passed thru the flesh of the Man's seed. Jesus is not the seed of Man, but the Son of God, the seed of the woman.

 

[doctorwho29]

The immaculate conception is that Jesus was born without sin, not Mary. Mary inherited sin from her father. Jesus' Father was God. He inherited not sin, which is passed thru the flesh of the Man's seed. Jesus is not the seed of Man, but the Son of God, the seed of the woman.

Just like my pastor said

 

[ralfyman]

I suspect Heartened Heart chose not to look carefully and never will.

One thing I never understood is why Catholicsm focuses so much on traditions that were created by men. Different Protestant churches have different traditions, even within denominations, and there are modern Protestant churches that do the opposite of what is traditional. Why do Cahtolics think they can't change?

The answer is given in Nos. 80 onward of the Catechism.

 

[Joy]

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