Evidence of Christs coming

mkgal1

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.....and even so - that still leaves room for all to have been fulfilled AND still a future return of Christ. LLoJ hasn't posted anything - as far as I'm aware of - that Christ will NEVER come again (that is what I meant by "no one is advocating for that belief here"). But that is a whole other thread.
 
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BABerean2

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I said I am leaning toward it [close tho]......


Anyone who has leaned that far has fallen on their face...

If you could cut "the judgment of the dead" out of your Bible, maybe you could make it work.


.
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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.....and even so - that still leaves room for all to have been fulfilled AND still a future return of Christ. LLoJ hasn't posted anything - as far as I'm aware of - that Christ will NEVER come again (that is what I meant by "no one is advocating for that belief here"). But that is a whole other thread.
Thank you mkgal.......:hug:
LittleLambofJesus said:
I said I am leaning toward it [close tho]......
Anyone who has leaned that far has fallen on their face...
If you could cut "the judgment of the dead" out of your Bible, maybe you could make it work.
.
:swoon: LOL
I didn't cut it out........I just haven't studied on that yet.

Revelation generally has some of the same events/sayings shown twice. IMHO
[I may create a separate study on that.......so many studies and so little time]

You yourself said Revelation was not in order on this "out of order" thread:

Revelation in order?

For example, Revelation 6:16 and Revelation 20:11

I am looking at this as just "possibly only", that those in Reve 6 are looking up at the one sitting upon the throne in Reve 20:11.
I would ask the Jews about this, but alas, only us lowly Gentile Spirit led Christians are around to help them figure it out. Onward thru the fog

Revelation 6:16

And they are saying to the mountains and to the rocks:
'Be falling upon us! and hide us! from Face of the One-sitting/kaqhmenon <2521> (5740) upon the Throne, [Revelation 20:11?]
and from the wrath of the Lamb-kin [Luke 21:23/Luke 23:28-30]

Could this possibly be what the wicked Jews are looking up at? Pretty awesome visions nonetheless

Revelation 20:11

And I saw a great white Throne.
And the One-sitting/kaqhmenon <2521> (5740) upon it, from Who's Face fled the Land and the Heaven [Revelation 6:16?]
and Place<5117> not was found to-them.
--------------------------------------------------------------

Luke 3:7

Then he said to the outgoing throngs<3793> to be baptized by him,
Brood of vipers!
Who shows to ye to be fleeing from the being about wrath? [Matthew 3:7/Revelation 6:16]

Matthew 24, Mark 13 and Luke's Temple/Jerusalem Discourses harmonized
Matt 24:19 "Woe to those nursing babies"

Luke 21:23

“Yet woe! to those being pregnant and those nursing babies in those the days!
For there will be great distress/necessity upon the land and wrath upon this people.

Luke 23:
28 But Jesus, turning to them, said, "Daughters of Jerusalem, don't weep for Me, but weep for yourselves and for your children.
29 For behold, the days are coming in which they will say,
'Blessed are the barren, the wombs that never bore, and the breasts that never nursed.'
30Then they will begin to tell the mountains, 'Fall on us!' and tell the hills, 'Cover us.'
31For if they do these things in the green tree, what will be done in the dry?"
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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.....and even so - that still leaves room for all to have been fulfilled AND still a future return of Christ. LLoJ hasn't posted anything - as far as I'm aware of - that Christ will NEVER come again (that is what I meant by "no one is advocating for that belief here"). But that is a whole other thread.
It appears some futurist [I won't mention names], cannot wrap their heads around the fact that Revelation and the Olivet Discourse are the same event.
Luke's Jerusalem/Temple discourses tie in with Revelation more than the other 2 and because Luke's Gospel is geared toward a more Gentile audience.

1 member implied that Luke and Matthew are different.
I say to that, "poppycock!!
That is tantamount to heresy.

Matthew 24, Mark 13 and Luke's Temple/Jerusalem Discourses harmonized

Dave Watchman said:
That means Matthew 24 is not the same thing as Luke 21.
Luke 21 was inside the Temple in the morning. Jesus was sitting down inside a place called the "women's" court. He had to "look up' to see the poor old widow put money in the treasury which was located around the outside perimeter of that court.
BABerean2 said:
Compare Luke's Gospel to that of Matthew if you want to understand the timing.
Jesus Foretells Destruction of the Temple (These subtitles are found in e-Sword.)
=======================
The Book of Matthew was addressed mainly to a Jewish audience.
Jesus was telling the Jews of His time that something similar to 167 BC would happen during 70 AD. Not only did Antiochus desecrate the temple, but he also attacked the city killing thousands of Jews and stopped the temple sacrifices. The temple sacrifices would also stop in 70 AD, due to the destruction of the temple. Based on John 10:22, the Jews were well aware of this historical fulfillment of Daniel’s prophecy. Luke’s Gospel was written to more of a Gentile audience, so he spelled it out for them.
==========================================
That reminds me of this really great fun thread on CF many moons ago LOL>

My Favorite Heresy. :)

Quote OP:
Let's have a little fun. Name your favorite heresy. By favorite I mean the doctrine or belief that drives you crazy. The one you can't believe anybody else could buy into.
It's not meant to be argumentative, simply a way to see how we all feel differently about different things. Of course, using the word heresy is only to describe how strongly we feel about it, not that it actually is a heresy. So relax, sit back and learn to laugh at yourself a bit.

I'll go first: fundamentalism.

Go Cards!
===========================================
It was so popular, it is still active after 11 yrs LOL.......

My Favorite Heresy. :) (2)
2009
 
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BABerean2

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I didn't cut it out........I just haven't studied on that yet.

Revelation generally has some of the same events/sayings shown twice. IMHO
[I may create a separate study on that.......so many studies and so little time]
You yourself said Revelation was not in order, correct?

For example, Revelation 6:16 and Revelation 20:11

2Ti 4:1 I charge thee therefore before God, and the Lord Jesus Christ, who shall judge the quick and the dead at his appearing and his kingdom;


The Book of Revelation may not be in chronological order, but there is a judgment of the dead described in several passages.

Rev 11:15 And the seventh angel sounded; and there were great voices in heaven, saying, The kingdoms of this world are become the kingdoms of our Lord, and of his Christ; and he shall reign for ever and ever.
Rev 11:16 And the four and twenty elders, which sat before God on their seats, fell upon their faces, and worshipped God,
Rev 11:17 Saying, We give thee thanks, O Lord God Almighty, which art, and wast, and art to come; because thou hast taken to thee thy great power, and hast reigned.
Rev 11:18 And the nations were angry, and thy wrath is come, and the time of the dead, that they should be judged, and that thou shouldest give reward unto thy servants the prophets, and to the saints, and them that fear thy name, small and great; and shouldest destroy them which destroy the earth.


If there was no judgment of the dead during 70 AD, how are you going to make Full-Preterism work?

If you are "leaning toward" a doctrine, what is keeping you from finding out if it is true?
Are you afraid it could be wrong?

.
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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2Ti 4:1 I charge thee therefore before God, and the Lord Jesus Christ, who shall judge the quick and the dead at his appearing and his kingdom;
If there was no judgment of the dead during 70 AD, how are you going to make Full-Preterism work?

If you are "leaning toward" a doctrine, what is keeping you from finding out if it is true?
Are you afraid it could be wrong?

.
BAB.......I already answered all of that earlier.........
I am now ready to harmonize the Olivet Discourse with 70ad and Revelation, a little here and a little there.........Luke is the major key to Revelation.........

Here is a thread you may like.......

Matt 24:19 “But woe to those who..... are nursing babies in those days


Matthew 24, Mark 13 and Luke's Temple/Jerusalem Discourses harmonized
Matt 24:19 "woe to those pregnant and nursing"


Matthew 24:19
Woe yet to those in womb having,
and to those suckling in those the days;

Mark 13:17
Woe yet to those in womb having,
and to those suckling in those the days;

Luke 21:23
Woe yet to those in womb having,
and to those suckling in those the days;
for there shall be great distress on the land and wrath on this people
==========================
The other 3 verses used"

Mat 21:16
and said to Him, “Do You hear what these are saying?” And Jesus said to them, “Yes. Have you never read,
‘Out of the mouth of babes and nursing infants
You have perfected praise
’?”
Luke 11:27
And it happened, as He spoke these things, that a certain woman from the crowd raised her voice and said to Him,
Blessed is the womb that bore You, and the breasts which nursed You!”
Luke 23:29
“For indeed the days are coming in which they will say,
‘Blessed are the barren, wombs that never bore, and breasts which never nursed!’


https://www.preteristarchive.com/JewishWars/timeline_military.html
"..probably the greatest single slaughter in ancient history."
ROMAN SIEGE AND SACK OF JERUSALEM

The Destruction of Jerusalem - George Peter Holford, 1805AD


The day on which Titus encompassed Jerusalem, was the feast of the Passover;.............

Meanwhile the horrors of famine grew still more melancholy and afflictive.
The Jews, for of food were at length compelled to eat their belts, their sandals, the skins of their shields, dried grass, and even the ordure of oxen.
In the depth or this horrible extremity, a Jewess of noble family urged by the intolerable cravings of hunger, slew her infant child, and prepared it for a meal ; and had actually eaten one half thereof, when the soldiers, allured by tile smell of food, threatened her with instant death if she refused to discover it......
Indeed, humanity at once shudders and sickens at the narration, nor can any one of the least sensibility reflect upon the pitiable condition to which the female part of the inhabitants of Jerusalem must at this time have been reduced, without experiencing the tenderest emotions of sympathy, or refrain from tears while he reads our SAVIOUR'S pathetic address to the women who " bewailed him" as he was led to Calvary, wherein he evidently refers to these very calamities :
"Daughters of Jerusalem, weep not for me, but for yourselves and fur your children ; for, behold, the days are coming in which they shall say, 'Blessed are the barren, and the wombs that never bare, and the breasts that never gave suck." Luke xxiii. 29.
 
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ebedmelech

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The Book of Revelation may not be in chronological order, but there is a judgment of the dead described in several passages.
Indeed. That is because Revelation is repeating the prophecy in some places.
 
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BABerean2

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BAB.......I already answered all of that earlier.........
I am now ready to harmonize the Olivet Discourse with 70ad and Revelation, a little here and a little there.........Luke is the major key to Revelation.........

Here is a thread you may like.......

I would like for you to stop promoting Full-Preterism on every thread, and deal with the future judgment of the dead found in Revelation 11:18, and 2 Timothy 4:1, and Matthew 12:41-42.

Otherwise you will never be able to completely harmonize those passages.

The future Second Coming of Christ is found in Luke 21:25-28.
It did not happen during 70 AD.


.
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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Indeed. That is because Revelation is repeating the prophecy in some places.
Yes indeed. Same with the Olivet Discourse.

Here are just a few I have found in my study of Revelation:

"THE TIME IS NIGH AT HAND" AND "COMING IN SWIFTNESS" REVELATION PROPHECY

Revelation 1:1

An-unveiling of Jesus Christ, which gives to Him, the GOD, to show to the bond servants of Him,
which-things is binding to be becoming In/en <1722> Swiftness/tacei <5034>.

Revelation 22:6

And said to me: "These the Words Faithful and True.
And Lord the GOD of the spirits of the holy Prophets commissions the messenger of Him to show to the bond-servents of Him
which-things is binding to be becoming In/en <1722> Swiftness/tacei <5034>.

Revelation 1:3

Blessed/happy the one reading, and the ones hearing, the words of the Prophecy and keepings in it having been written/gegrammena <1125> (5772),
That the Time/Season Nigh<1451>.
Revelation 22:10

And he is saying to me "no thou should be sealing the Words of the Prophecy of the Scroll, this.
That the Time/Season Nigh<1451> is.

And this one from another post:
Revelation generally has some of the same events/sayings shown twice. IMHO
[I may create a separate study on that.......so many studies and so little time]
BAB, you yourself said Revelation was not in order, correct?

For example, Revelation 6:16 and Revelation 20:11
=========================================
I am looking at this as just "possibly only", that those in Reve 6 are looking up at the one sitting upon the throne in Reve 20:11.
I would ask the Jews about this, but alas, only us lowly Gentile Spirit led Christians are around to help them figure it out. Onward thru the fog

Revelation 6:16

And they are saying to the mountains and to the rocks:
'Be falling upon us! and hide us! from Face of the One-sitting/kaqhmenon <2521> (5740) upon the Throne, [Revelation 20:11?]
and from the wrath of the Lamb-kin [Luke 21:23/Luke 23:28-30]

Could this possibly be what the wicked Jews are looking up at? Pretty awesome visions nonetheless

Revelation 20:11

And I saw a great white Throne.
And the One-sitting/kaqhmenon <2521> (5740) upon it, from Who's Face fled the Land and the Heaven [Revelation 6:16?]
and Place<5117> not was found to-them.
--------------------------------------------------------------
 
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DavidPT

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I'll do my best to help clarify.


That's fair.


Got it.


Yes.


Sounds reasonable...



Ok.. Not sure exactly where you are going with this though?
I assume you believe this provides some sort of Conundrum for me somehow?

Sorry, I don't see it.



I do agree with you that C and D are referring to the same event. What I don't agree with you about is the timing of this. You conclude it's in the past and already fulfilled. I conclude it's still in the future and yet to be fulfilled. You don't take the sighting literally, I do. Something else I don't agree with you about.

As to what I said about the falling stars, you initially made a point that the event is not literal, as in actual stars falling to the earth. I never indicated one way or the other as whether this to be taken literally or not. So my point was that chronology determines timing of this event, whether literal or non literal. The timing of this event is immediately after the trib of those days. If the trib of those days ended around 70 AD or so, that means the falling stars event would have to take place immediately after 70 AD. What immediately after 70 AD might explain the following?----shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken:
And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory

Since I can't think of a single thing myself that might explain these events immediately after the trib of those days, assuming the trib of those days involved the events of 70 AD, I am left concluding the trib of those days involves the end of this present age. And since the end of this present age is still yet to occur, the trib of those days meant in the Discourse have not been fulfilled in their entirety as of yet. My perspective apparently indicates the sighting of the Son of man has to be a literal visible event then. That doesn't necessarily mean the falling stars have to be literal as well though.
 
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DavidPT

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Sure it matters!!! It is part of our Bible.


I didn't mean it like that though. Regardless that the falling stars may not even be literal, that hardly proves it still can't be a future event yet to to be fulfilled.
 
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parousia70

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I do agree with you that C and D are referring to the same event. What I don't agree with you about is the timing of this. You conclude it's in the past and already fulfilled. I conclude it's still in the future and yet to be fulfilled. You don't take the sighting literally, I do. Something else I don't agree with you about.

Ok....
Do you take this sighting literally?:
The Lord hath made bare His holy arm before the eyes of all nations (Isaiah 52:10)

If so, do you have any corroborating evidence of Gods actual arm being SEEN by every eye of every person in every nation at that time?
Certainly, such a monumental, globally visible event of God's Holy Arm being made bare for everyone on earth to see would have been recorded in most if not ALL the worlds history books somewhere, right?

As to what I said about the falling stars, you initially made a point that the event is not literal, as in actual stars falling to the earth. I never indicated one way or the other as whether this to be taken literally or not.

So you will allow for non literal meaning.
Good to know.

So my point was that chronology determines timing of this event, whether literal or non literal. The timing of this event is immediately after the trib of those days. If the trib of those days ended around 70 AD or so, that means the falling stars event would have to take place immediately after 70 AD. What immediately after 70 AD might explain the following?----shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken:
And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory

Did you read my previous post with all the Biblical accounts of multiple, PAST FULFILLED events that the OT records with similar to EXACTLY the same language?

Do you have an opinion on those?

As I mentioned, whenever God has come in biblical times to exact Judgement upon individual nations, Kings or Kingdoms, earth-destroying, Sun Darkening, Star falling, Moon bleeding, Mountain-melting, Heavens receding, Humanity-extinguishing, universal doom language is applied.

Am I wrong?

Since I can't think of a single thing myself that might explain these events immediately after the trib of those days, assuming the trib of those days involved the events of 70 AD, I am left concluding the trib of those days involves the end of this present age.

We may be able to get somewhere with this tidbit...
When do you say "this present age" began?

And since the end of this present age is still yet to occur, the trib of those days meant in the Discourse have not been fulfilled in their entirety as of yet. My perspective apparently indicates the sighting of the Son of man has to be a literal visible event then. That doesn't necessarily mean the falling stars have to be literal as well though.

I suppose i could buy into this if it weren't for what seems to be your desire to flat out ignore How the Bible previously, repeatedly uses this type of "universal cataclysm" language to describe God's hand in the rise and fall of individual nations, Kings and Kingdoms.

Again, do you have any opinion on that?

Should we simply ignore the set precedent on how the OT uses this language when we see it in the NT, and instead apply a POLAR OPPOSITE interpretation in the complete absence of ANY scriptural instruction to do so??

Is that your contention?
 
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DavidPT

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Ok....
Do you take this sighting literally?:
The Lord hath made bare His holy arm before the eyes of all nations (Isaiah 52:10)

If so, do you have any corroborating evidence of Gods actual arm being SEEN by every eye of every person in every nation at that time?
Certainly, such a monumental, globally visible event of God's Holy Arm being made bare for everyone on earth to see would have been recorded in most if not ALL the worlds history books somewhere, right?


I get your points like the above, thus don't disagree for the most part. But what you appear to be failing to grasp in this case, is that chronology in Matthew 24:29-30 determines meaning via the timing of these things. I will try and illustrate why towards the end of my response to your post.



Did you read my previous post with all the Biblical accounts of multiple, PAST FULFILLED events that the OT records with similar to EXACTLY the same language?

Do you have an opinion on those?

As I mentioned, whenever God has come in biblical times to exact Judgement upon individual nations, Kings or Kingdoms, earth-destroying, Sun Darkening, Star falling, Moon bleeding, Mountain-melting, Heavens receding, Humanity-extinguishing, universal doom language is applied.

Am I wrong?

Are you wrong? It all depends. Some of the examples that you have brought up, there is always the chance some of them haven't even been fulfilled yet. For example, Isaiah 34 that you brought up.

Isaiah 34:4 And all the host of heaven shall be dissolved, and the heavens shall be rolled together as a scroll: and all their host shall fall down, as the leaf falleth off from the vine, and as a falling fig from the fig tree.

This sounds a lot like something mentioned in Revelation 6, where I take in Revelation 6 to still be fulfilled in the future. Which then brings me to what I was wanting to illustrate towards the end of my post.

What I tend to think needs to be determined first, is this. the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken. What exactly is that referring to? Maybe we need to go to the book of Revelation and see if it can help us with this.

Revelation 6:12 And I beheld when he had opened the sixth seal, and, lo, there was a great earthquake; and the sun became black as sackcloth of hair, and the moon became as blood;
13 And the stars of heaven fell unto the earth, even as a fig tree casteth her untimely figs, when she is shaken of a mighty wind.
14 And the heaven departed as a scroll when it is rolled together; and every mountain and island were moved out of their places.
15 And the kings of the earth, and the great men, and the rich men, and the chief captains, and the mighty men, and every bondman, and every free man, hid themselves in the dens and in the rocks of the mountains;
16 And said to the mountains and rocks, Fall on us, and hide us from the face of him that sitteth on the throne, and from the wrath of the Lamb:
17 For the great day of his wrath is come; and who shall be able to stand?


What are the chances, whether literal or not, that the following happens multiple times in history, thus at different times in history? and the stars shall fall from heaven(Matthew 24:30)---And the stars of heaven fell unto the earth(Revelation 6:13). I can't speak for anyone else, but I'm left thinking these are describing the same events. Assuming they are, let's look what else Revelation 6 has to say about this.

And the heaven departed as a scroll when it is rolled together; and every mountain and island were moved out of their places.

Does that match with anything right after 70 AD?

And the kings of the earth, and the great men, and the rich men, and the chief captains, and the mighty men, and every bondman, and every free man, hid themselves in the dens and in the rocks of the mountains;
And said to the mountains and rocks, Fall on us, and hide us from the face of him that sitteth on the throne, and from the wrath of the Lamb

Does that match with anything right after 70 AD?

In my opinion none of the above appears to fit with a single thing immediately following the events of 70 AD. Those who take Matthew 24:29-30 to have involved 70 AD, thus already fulfilled in their opinion, need to show how and why Revelation 6:12-17 matches to a T, events immediately after what occurred once the events of 70 AD concluded. Until one can reasonably do that first, why should anyone entertain in the meantime, the possibility that Matthew 24:29-30 has already been fulfilled in the first century?
 
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parousia70

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For example, Isaiah 34 that you brought up.
Isaiah 34:4 And all the host of heaven shall be dissolved, and the heavens shall be rolled together as a scroll: and all their host shall fall down, as the leaf falleth off from the vine, and as a falling fig from the fig tree.
This sounds a lot like something mentioned in Revelation 6,

Yes it does!,
However the Context of Isaiah 34 is the Destruction of EDOM.
The Day of the Lord (Isa 34:8) against all nations back in the 500s BC. The particular mention of God's sacrifice of the nations (including Edom) found in Isa 34 harmonizes with Ezekiel 25 and 26, where Edom's doom is particularly listed in Ez 25:12-14. It also harmonizes with Jeremiah 49:7-22 and the entire prophecy of Obadiah. As the prophecies said, Edom was destroyed at that time.

Here again we see the usual apocalyptic metaphors at the time of Edom's destruction: Jehovah comes down for battle to bring his sword against nations (Isa 34:5-9), the universe colapses (Isa 34:4), the destruction of these civilizations is compared to a blood sacrifice on God's alter (34:6), it's the Day of the Lord's vengeance (Isa 34:8 -- compare to the Day of the Lord's vengeance of AD 66-70 spoken of in Luke 21:20-22) and so on. We could find many more apocatlyptc metaphors by seraching the Ezekiel and Jeremiah and Obediah accounts. All this, of course, shows us how Christ's coming in the glory of the Father at AD 66-70 was precisely of the same nature as all the previous Jehovhah-comings foretold by the prophets and fulfilled in OT times.

It is likewise evident that the various disasters of Isaiah 19 upon Egypt are personally doled out by Yahweh's coming. Yahweh rides a cloud down to Egypt (19:1). He leads a civil war in the country (19:2). Yahweh turns them over to the cruel Assyrian Monarch (probably Sargon). Yahweh brings disasters upon them (19:16). This passage was fulfilled, and serves as another strong context for how we are to understand the Lord's coming against Israel and the nations back in the first century when the commonwealth was destroyed, Rome burned, the demonized Temple worship both at Jerusalem and Rome were leveled, and the Kingdom of God triumphed as the New Covenant Church was established forever.


What I tend to think needs to be determined first, is this. the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken. What exactly is that referring to? Maybe we need to go to the book of Revelation and see if it can help us with this.

Revelation 6:12 And I beheld when he had opened the sixth seal, and, lo, there was a great earthquake; and the sun became black as sackcloth of hair, and the moon became as blood;
13 And the stars of heaven fell unto the earth, even as a fig tree casteth her untimely figs, when she is shaken of a mighty wind.
14 And the heaven departed as a scroll when it is rolled together; and every mountain and island were moved out of their places.
15 And the kings of the earth, and the great men, and the rich men, and the chief captains, and the mighty men, and every bondman, and every free man, hid themselves in the dens and in the rocks of the mountains;
16 And said to the mountains and rocks, Fall on us, and hide us from the face of him that sitteth on the throne, and from the wrath of the Lamb:
17 For the great day of his wrath is come; and who shall be able to stand?

Revelation 6:12-17 is St. John's use of nearly identical apocalyptic language to past apocalypses, and we see there that the truth of the passage is symbolic in the same ways the OT prophets used the terms for apocalypses in their days:

Revelation 6:12-15
I looked when He broke the sixth seal, and there was a great earthquake; and the sun became black as sackcloth made of hair, and the whole moon became like blood; and the stars of the sky fell to the earth[compare to Isaiah 13:10; Ez 32:7,8] , as a fig tree casts its unripe figs when shaken by a great wind. The sky was split apart like a scroll when it is rolled up, and every mountain and island were moved out of their places. [compare to Isa 34:4]. Then the kings of the earth and the great men and the commanders and the rich and the strong and every slave and free man hid themselves in the caves and among the rocks of the mountains [compare to Is 2:10,19,21]

In the same way as these things had been fulfilled in ancient times through the fall of kings and nations and civilizations, so also were these things fulfilled back in the first century when Christ and the apostles declared them and they came to pass, especially in the desolation of apostate Israel.

What are the chances, whether literal or not, that the following happens multiple times in history, thus at different times in history? and the stars shall fall from heaven(Matthew 24:30)---And the stars of heaven fell unto the earth(Revelation 6:13)

If we are to believe scripture, then we must admit 100% chance of that.

We only need Compare Matthew 24 and Revelation with God's coming to O.T. Babylon in 539BC (Isa 13:10-13, 13:1, and 13:17), OR God's coming to Edom in 703BC (Isa 34:3-5), OR God's coming to Egypt in 572BC (Ez 32:7-11) OR God's coming to Nineveh in 612BC (Nahum 1). So Matthew 24:29 was ALSO fulfilled at the fall of the Temple and Jerusalem in exactly the same way as the many times before. Surely you don't expect A GREAT MANY stars like our sun to literally hit our earth as we see in Revelation 6:13???

It seems to me that you are not understanding these phrases as they are biblically used.

First, you emphasize that he will be "seen coming with clouds" as stated in Matt 24:30 and Rev 1:7. But didn't you notice that this very event is described in Revelation 14:14-20, which is clearly a heavenly event and not an earthly one? Read that Revelation 14:14-20 passage to see that ST. John is not thinking of a physical event in the skies overhead.

Also, Jehovah's OT apocalypses are always described as Jehovah coming down and leading armies, and shooting arrows, and bowing the heavens and destroying the earth and such. Those OT events had corresponding judgments on earth, but the Jews knew Jehovah never literally and physically did those things. Yet the prophets spoke in very physical/literal terms about those judgments:

*Yahweh came down and shot his arrows at Saul and his armies, destroying the earth and the heavens at the time (2 Sam 22:8-16)

*Yahweh came down and shot his arrows over Greece and blew His trumpet (Zechariah 9:13-16);

*Yahweh came down riding a cloud to beat up on Egypt (Isa 19:1-2);

*Yahweh made bare his Holy Arm in the eyes of all nations (Isa 52:10);

*Yahweh came to the Israelites at Sinai and Seir with Ten Thousand of His Saints and led a march on the fields of Edom (Deut 33:2; Judges 5:4-5);

*Yahweh destroyed the universe when he judged Israel through Babylon (Jer 4:22-30) and did so again when he judged Egypt by Babylon (Ezekiel 32:2-8).

So also did Christ do these things when "the Lord of the Vineyard came" in AD 66-70 and was to them the Stone that crushed them to powder and removed the Kingdom of God from them (see Matthew 21:40-45).

Again, you appear to wish to apply a POLAR OPPOSITE interpretation to this set precedent but you havent shown us any Biblical instruction to do so.
 
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mkgal1

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If there was no judgment of the dead during 70 AD, how are you going to make Full-Preterism work?
That isn't the topic of this thread (nor have I seen that argued for). Not all full-preterists agree on everything, so tossing that term around (without a specific argument) doesn't mean much at all.
If you are "leaning toward" a doctrine, what is keeping you from finding out if it is true?
Are you afraid it could be wrong?
BABerean - your name here alone should answer your question (but insults are uncalled for). Some of us take our time and ponder Scripture - and changing paradigms (if necessary) is a process, not an event.
I would like for you to stop promoting Full-Preterism on every thread, and deal with the future judgment of the dead found in Revelation 11:18, and 2 Timothy 4:1, and Matthew 12:41-42.
Start a thread on that then - but that's not the topic in this thread. What if there are others that are tired of a poster's opinion? Are only specific view points allowed here? This is a discussion board. There are bound to be other ways of looking at Scripture. Echo chambers don't help with strengthening our understanding of the Bible - but discussing our beliefs does. It's good exercise for our beliefs to be challenged.
The future Second Coming of Christ is found in Luke 21:25-28.
It did not happen during 70 AD.
The Parousia (I believe) happened in 70 AD. That isn't a full-preterist belief (alone) - it's a belief held by the Anglican church and - and as far as I know - the Greek Orthodox church. Ray Vander Laan (who is Dutch reformed, I believe) also teaches that Luke 21:25-28 is about the destruction of Jerusalem and the Temple system (and His "coming in glory"). This is the best book I know of that supports that view clearly: The Parousia by by James Stuart Russell

For those that are visual learners, Ray Vander Laan has excellent video series. I just learned about an online video streaming service that's like Netflix for Christian Bible studies (called Study Gateway). Many of RVL's videos are available there.

This one addresses the issue of what happened in 70 AD: Volume 15 | A Clash of Kingdoms
 
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BABerean2

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The Parousia (I believe) happened in 70 AD. That isn't a full-preterist belief (alone) - it's a belief held by the Anglican church and - and as far as I know - the Greek Orthodox church. Ray Vander Laan (who is Dutch reformed, I believe) also teaches that Luke 21:25-28 is about the destruction of Jerusalem and the Temple system (and His "coming in glory"). This is the best book I know of that supports that view clearly: The Parousia by by James Stuart Russell

For those that are visual learners, Ray Vander Laan has excellent video series.

At one time my wife and I were involved in a home Bible study group that met on Wednesday nights.

We watched a number of the programs done by Ray Vander Laan.
They were excellent.


If Christ remained seated at the Father's right hand during 70 AD, how did He return to Jerusalem?

Do you believe Christ is also returning at some point in the future?


Can you explain the fulfillment of what Paul said in the verse below?


2Ti 4:1 I charge you therefore before God and the Lord Jesus Christ, who will judge the living and the dead at His appearing and His kingdom:

.
.
 
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mkgal1

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At one time my wife and I were involved in a home Bible study group that met on Wednesday nights.

We watched a number of the programs done by Ray Vander Laan.
They were excellent.
If you've not seen the series The Clash of Kingdoms and Cultures in Conflict and The Mission of Jesus - I highly recommend them (and then what I post won't look so controversial to you).

If Christ remained seated at the Father's right hand during 70 AD, how did He return to Jerusalem?
That's a question that would probably be good for you to ponder - considering this verse (recording Jesus' words):

Matthew 26:63-64 ~ Then the high priest said to Him, “I charge You under oath by the living God: Tell us if You are the Christ, the Son of God.” “You have said it yourself,” Jesus answered. “But I say to all of you, from now on you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Mighty One and coming on the clouds of heaven.

Do you believe Christ is also returning at some point in the future?
Yes.

Can you explain the fulfillment of what Paul said in the verse below?

2Ti 4:1 I charge you therefore before God and the Lord Jesus Christ, who will judge the living and the dead at His appearing and His kingdom:
Start a new thread. That's off topic in this one.
 
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Residential Bob

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Well its nice to know you agree Christ had not come as he said he would .

Matthew 10:23 When they persecute you in one town, flee to the next. Truly I tell you, you will not reach all the towns of Israel before the Son of Man comes.

He will though as you have said and when he does this prophecy will be fulfilled.
Jesus tells his disciples that they will not have canvased Israel before the Son of Man comes (Mt 10:23). Does this mean that the province was so immense that twelve men would need more than two thousand years to canvas it? If Christ has not yet come back, then after two thousand years, parts of Israel must not have yet been reached. Surely this notion is absurd, especially when we see in the Scriptures that the countryside had indeed been canvased.

Note that Jesus sends out an additional seventy-two disciples in pairs with similar instructions (Lk 10:1-12). They finish this mission and report back to him (Lk 10:17). They were able to preach throughout the land in a rather short period of time. The Son of Man, therefore, was returning, as we see momentarily.

While the seventy-two were out preaching, Jesus saw Satan fall from heaven (Lk 10:18). The Gospel was beginning to absolve the world of its trespass and topple evil from the seats of power. The world was even now beholding a kingdom of priests, all equal to one another. The kingdom was now - 2,000 years ago - dispelling the darkness that blinded Israel to the truth.
 
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