Sticking to points relevant to my statement, I’ve never heard of an employment contract where the two parties agree to stay together through rich or poor(!), in sickness and in health. Or where the loving relationship requires commensurate payment from one party, designated as employer, to another party, designated as employee. In the New Covenant, there is no particular payment linbed to a particular task, unlike the Old, where physical blessings are linked to complete obedience to all commandments. Instead, being loyal, faithful to the bridegroom results in the spiritual blessing of receiving what was promised to Abraham.
We must be careful in defining requirements. In a work contract the tasks are specific. In a loving relationship, the acts can be interpreted with liberty, but must reflect faithfulness. So ultimate salvation need not require acts which are visible, what the Old Covenant calls works of the Law. So if a believer wakes up and says to himself, “I must not do anything today that is sinful”, and if he died the next moment he would still be considered saved.
We are discussing the fault of the guest which you claim to be was his lack of works. The lack of the wedding garments refers to the Gentile who, when examined, was found to be unaware of the gift of God in inviting him to the feast. He thought the feast was to celebrate his own righteousness for which he was invited. Not so, says the text, Gentiles were included in the ¨favour by loyalty¨ type salvation because God had caused, Judaism, to become a vessel of dishonor, leading to the wall which prevented Gentiles from being included, was itself being excluded from the people of God.
So the fault of the Gentile was in continuing to be proud of the traditions and religion which he thought had earned him entry to the Feast.
BTW, nothing in the people of God can show Judaism remains in the Church. There was no special requirements for any person, to say he was a male believer or a female believer, a master or a slave, a Jew or a Gentile, while the old Covenant did have these differentiators.
The word Jew means “praiser of God”. Why did the Jew praise God?
Because he was special, treated different by Heaven from any other person in the world who was not in the People of god:
Unlike before, Gentiles were now with the Messiah, not alienated from the citizenship of the People of God and not strangers to the covenants of promise, having hope, and with God in the world.
If you say the People of God consists of Christian Jews and Christian Gentiles, then what is the difference? Do the Christian Jews keep the Christian Gentiles from entering the Assembly?
You seem to define good works as works which benefit others. Loyalty is much more comprehensive. A paralytic saying to himself to be good can also be considered loyal, and loyalty is sufficient to have God’s favor, which is sufficient for salvation.
You seem to define good works as works which benefit others. Loyalty is much more comprehensive. A paralytic saying to himself to be good can also be considered loyal, and loyalty is sufficient to have God’s favor, which is sufficient for salvation.
You seem to define good works as works which benefit others. Loyalty is much more comprehensive. A paralytic saying to himself to be good can also be considered loyal, and loyalty is sufficient to have God’s favor, which is sufficient for salvation.
They claimed to be people who were following a God who was longsuffering, quick to forgive and ever compassionate. If you follow Marx, then you should not claim ownership to personal property. You should not just agree with his teachings, you should live them out.
What Jesus was rebuking was the request from followers of a forgiving God to make them forgiving! The problem with forgiving is that it results in loss. The good news is that forgiving, making a sacrifice, in the New Covenant does not lead to loss:
1 Corinthians 15:3For what I received I passed on to you as of first importancea : that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, 4that he was buried, that he was raised on the third day according to the Scriptures, 5and that he appeared to Cephas,b and then to the Twelve.
You are the first person I know who thinks that God needs anything. The disciple who forgives will have God bless his act and this is how he becomes a blessing to the world, while receiving treasure which does not perish for doing it.
John 12:32"And I, if I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all men to Myself."
Luke 17:10So you too, when you do all the things which are commanded you, say, 'We are unworthy slaves; we have done only that which we ought to have done.'"
This means the work they do is not entitled to wages. The result of the work benefits their own storehouse, account.
Confirming the idea that minors can not be held responsible for what their immaturity led them to do. The secular courts make allowance for immaturity, the Bible makes allowance for the same, but your theology is less gracious and merciful? Not to ignore, less knowledgeable about the science of how the human mind develops?
The Bible is the raw material. Doctrines are interpretations of Scripture for the purpose of obedience. Suppose a person in the church says something which needs critiquing and agreement or disagreement with for the purpose of a proper response. You wouldn’t do it to a minor, because he is not mentally mature (does not possess a physiological development) and is not responsible for things he says or does. Please think things through instead of letting yourself dependent on spoonfeeding from the pastor:
John 9:21But we do not know how he is now able to see, nor do we know who caused him to see. Ask him, he is a mature adult. He will speak for himself."
Did your pastor teach you that? At least the RCC is more creative in making up explanations:
Quote
Augustine’s association with Neoplatonic philosophers led him to introduce their outlook within the church. This had its effect in the development of doctrine. For example, Jesus was considered immaculately conceived—without sin in that His Father was God. But because His mother, Mary, had a human father, she suffered the effect of original sin. In order to present Jesus Christ as a perfect offspring without any inherited sin from either parent, the church had to find a way to label Mary as sinless. They did this by devising the doctrine of her immaculate conception, though this inevitably leads to further questions.
http://www.vision.org/visionmedia/article.aspx?id=227
Romans 9 deals with nations. At no point did Esau serve Jacob, but Edom did serve Israel. Jews who insisted on preserving Judaism, a group, who called non observant Jews sinners, unclean, not Jews, were made a vessel of dishonor, were cut off.
Romasns 3 teaches that Gentiles were included in the ¨favour by loyalty¨ type salvation because God had caused those who valued Judaism, its righteousness, to become a vessel of dishonor, had cut it off, removing a barrier that blocked Gentiles, so it was a free gift for them, not earned by following the requirements, works, of their religion. Not one gave righteousness, neither Jew or Gentile religions.
Having your angels facing God means you are justified. Having the Kingdom of God belonging to you means you are justified. Children are better off than you. You are not even in the kingdom. You can’t even see the kingdom. You don’t even know what the Kingdom is.
I thought you said the father must be obedient. You seemed to have corrected your vague statement. Anyway, where Law does not exist, as in the minds of the incapable, minors, the insane, etc, transgression does not occur.[/quote]
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