- Jul 22, 2014
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Important Note:
I am a believer in Jesus Christ. I am a Christian. I believe in the Trinity and I believe Jesus died and was risen again on my behalf for salvation through faith by God's Word (the Bible) alone. I believe Jesus had a real physical flesh and blood body (Whose shed blood washed away my sins). I also want to say that we as Christians do look through a glass darkly and Scripture is not exactly clear on certain things. This is why I believe there are:
Two Possibilities in Explaining Christ's Divine Behavior & His Limited Human Behavior:
I believe the Hypostatic Union is one possibility to explain Jesus's behavior being both divine at times and human at other times. The best two verses for support of this belief is Colossians 1:19 and Colossians 2:9. Another possibility (that I think is more likely) is that Jesus only had one divine nature and or one divine mind, will, or soul (and no created "human soul / human mind").
Why do I believe this?
Well, here are the verses for you to consider (Which is my preferred explanation on understanding Christ's divine and human behavior expressed in Scripture):
#1. Hebrews 7:26 - "For such an high priest became us, who is holy, harmless, undefiled, separate from sinners, and made higher than the heavens;"
Jesus is holy, harmless, undefiled, and separate from sinners. He was made higher than the heavens. He became us (in the fact that he had a flesh and blood body), but he was holy. A person or being who is truly holy, harmless, undefiled and separate from sinners does not have the capacity to sin. Some say that Jesus had a human nature whereby He had the ability to potentially do evil. This means that in order to do evil or sin, one must have lusts or bad desires within them in order to carry out or act upon those wrong desires or lusts. Yet, the Bible says he was holy, undefiled and separate from sinners.
#2. 1 John 2:16 - "For all that is in the world, the lust of the flesh, and the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life, is not of the Father, but is of the world."
This verse states that the lust of the flesh, the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life is not of the Father, but is of the world.
Jesus said, "I and my Father are one." (John 10:30).
So if Jesus is truly one with the Father (and He is), then Jesus cannot also have any lusts of the flesh, or lusts of the eyes, or the pride of life. These things are of the world. In fact, the devil tried to offer Jesus the kingdoms of this world, but He refused his offer.
Jesus said, "I and my Father are one." (John 10:30).
So if Jesus is truly one with the Father (and He is), then Jesus cannot also have any lusts of the flesh, or lusts of the eyes, or the pride of life. These things are of the world. In fact, the devil tried to offer Jesus the kingdoms of this world, but He refused his offer.
#3. Micah 5:2 - "But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, though thou be little among the thousands of Judah, yet out of thee shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting."
This is a Messianic prophecy that talks about how Jesus will be a ruler over Israel one day. It says that the origin of this ruler (Jesus) is from of old, from everlasting. Alternatively however if Jesus had a human soul or human mind, it suggests that Jesus was a newly created being that did not exist before the Incarnation. He would not have technically existed from everlasting if he joined with a newly created human counterpart in the Incarnation. The Word was made flesh and dwelt among us. His origins are from everlasting in the fact that He is the eternal Living Word (or the Word of God as Revelation says). Jesus. He always existed. This presents a problem for Hypostatic Union (HU), but it does not mean that the HU is not true, though.
#4. 1 John 4:2 - "Hereby know ye the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God."
It's a pretty fair conclusion to make that Jesus was unlike us. He was unique. This verse is not saying that he was like us. This verse does not say after he came into the flesh he became known as the man called, Jesus Christ. That is not what we are to confess. We are to confess that Jesus Christ is COME in the flesh. What this verse is suggesting (like other verses) is that Jesus Christ has always existed. Jesus Christ is COME (entered) into the flesh or body of a man. In fact, Jesus was laughed at when he said he knew Abraham. But Jesus said this to them, "Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am" (John 8:58). After the crowd heard this: The crowd went ape crazy and they picked up stones to throw at him. In other words, Jesus is saying He has always existed. He did not come down into a newly created human soul or spirit and take on a human nature so as to potentially sin. That wouldn't make any sense. For me this is a really strong point for this position; But again, we need to be objective and look at all possibilities to explain why Jesus behaved in both a divine way and in a limited human way.
#5. 1 Peter 2:24 - "Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed."
Many believe that the atonement is denied if one does not believe Jesus had a human nature. But having a human soul or human spirit is not a requirement in order for God to redeem us of our sins. How so? Peter says that Jesus took on our sins in his body on the cross. So the human spirit and or human soul is not necessary for our salvation. Jesus's blood is what washes away our sins and not the soul or some spirit. For a high price was paid for our sins, and that was with Christ's death.
#6. 1 Timothy 3:16 - "And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory."
This verse says that God was manifest in the flesh. It does not say God was manifest through a human soul or human spirit along with that flesh. God was manifest in the flesh. However, if Jesus took on a human soul, and human spirit, it really wouldn't be God manifesting in the flesh (according to this verse) because He would be like every other believer who has God living inside of them. Jesus was unique and different from us. Jesus was literally GOD. He was manifest in the flesh. Again. This is another strong point for this position. But Colossians 1:19, and Colossians 2:9 still fit best with the explanation of the Hypostatic Union.
#7. John 14:30 - "Hereafter I will not talk much with you: for the prince of this world cometh, and hath nothing in me."
Jesus is claiming that the devil has nothing inside of him. Meaning, Jesus does not have any of the lusts of the devil residing within himself (Which would be present in a normal corrupt human nature).
Jesus says to certain Jews, "Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. " (John 8:44).
So Jesus is describing something of his opponents that they do, which does not apply to Him.
For Jesus says, "If God were your Father, ye would love me: for I proceeded forth and came from God; neither came I of myself, but he sent me." (John 8:42).
So lusts do not reside in Jesus. So the false belief that Jesus could have sinned because he had a human nature does not work.
14 "But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed.
15 Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death." (James 1:14-15).
#8. Jesus said:Jesus says to certain Jews, "Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. " (John 8:44).
So Jesus is describing something of his opponents that they do, which does not apply to Him.
For Jesus says, "If God were your Father, ye would love me: for I proceeded forth and came from God; neither came I of myself, but he sent me." (John 8:42).
So lusts do not reside in Jesus. So the false belief that Jesus could have sinned because he had a human nature does not work.
14 "But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed.
15 Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death." (James 1:14-15).
"For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me." (John 6:38).
Now, stop and think about this for a moment. If Jesus said He came down from Heaven, then that means He was either:
(a) He was not telling the entire truth because He was referring to some divine portion of Himself (or):
(b) He was telling the entire truth and He actually did come down from Heaven and He was not created in the Incarnation as some newly created being who had a new human soul, and or human mind, etc.
Also, if Jesus is able to speak from His divine part of Himself, how is able to shut off the human part of Himself? How is Jesus able to disconnect His human mind, will, and emotions? Jesus said He came down from Heaven. Jesus did not say He came from the Incarnation as if that was His beginning. Again, this is yet another strong point for this position. But many Christians are convinced that the Hypostatic Union is the truth and I agree with them that is a possibility (Although I believe it to be smaller in percentage of chance out of the two possibilities).
Jesus Had Suppressed His Divine Attribute of Omniscience (at the foundation of the world long before the “Incarnation”):
Jesus grew in wisdom as a child (Luke 2:52), and He did not know the day or the hour of His own return (Matthew 24:36).
There are two possible explanations for this. The mysterious hypostatic union (Which is one possibility), or Jesus merely suppressed His divine attribute of Omniscience (i.e. to have all knowledge).
The Bible alludes to the fact that Jesus suppressed His divine attribute of Omniscience at the beginning of God’s creation.
How so?
Jesus says to God the Father,
"And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began." (John 17:5).
I believe this glory is in reference to the "glory of the knowledge of the Lord."
For it is written:
"For the earth shall be filled with the knowledge of the glory of the LORD, as the waters cover the sea." (Habakkuk 2:14).
"For God, who commanded the light to shine out of darkness, hath shined in our hearts, to give the light of the knowledge of the glory of God in the face of Jesus Christ." (2 Corinthians 4:6).
"For God, who commanded the light to shine out of darkness, hath shined in our hearts, to give the light of the knowledge of the glory of God in the face of Jesus Christ." (2 Corinthians 4:6).
Jesus divine attribute of Omniscience was not suppressed before the world began. This is the glory that He shared with the Father at one time. Jesus was the Lamb slain before the foundation of the world. His fate was already laid out ahead of time because God is 100% aware of everything that is going to happen.
When the world began, Jesus's divine attribute of Omniscience was suppressed.
Jesus was perfected in obeying the Father and suffered unto death while He was limited in knowledge or while His divine attribute of Omniscience was suppressed. Jesus was able to learn how to obey while under suffering in a human body with limited knowledge. Jesus lived like a man so as to fulfill the type of Adam. For Adam was also limited in knowledge in the Garden before the fall.
It's why Jesus is a like type figure of Adam.
For Jesus is called the "Last Adam" in Scripture (See 1 Corinthians 15:22).
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