Queller said in post #642:
Let's propose for a moment that a homosexual orientation is a choice. So what?
Homosexuality is a sin (Romans 1:26-27).
Queller said in post #642:
Should people be denied their rights because of choice?
In the case of the OP, homosexuals were not actually denied their rights.
Nonetheless, homosexuals and their supporters still mistakenly claim that a Christian calligrapher not writing invitations to a gay wedding shows "hatred" and "discrimination" against gays themselves, in their persons, when in fact what is being discriminated against is not any person (i.e. the calligrapher could write birthday-party invitations for a gay person), but is against the practice of homosexuality itself, which would be promoted by supporting a gay wedding. Christians have the First Amendment right to the "free exercise" of their religion, which requires that they not support sinful activities (Ephesians 5:11), such as homosexuality (Romans 1:26-27) or adultery (Galatians 5:19-21), or pedophilia for that matter (Mark 9:42).
For example, in the "Masterpiece" Supreme Court case, the homosexual plaintiffs even admitted that the Christian baker told them:
"I’ll make you birthday cakes, shower cakes, sell you cookies and brownies, I just don’t make cakes for same - sex weddings."
So he was not discriminating against their persons at all, but was discriminating against an event which goes against his religion.
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Queller said in post #645:
There's not one bit of scientific or legal evidence that "Christian Gay Conversion Therapy" works at all.
There is evidence. Just read the personal testimonies (not hearsay), which can be found online, of the Christians who have been helped by Christian Gay Conversion Therapy to become straight, or at least to no longer practice homosexuality.
For Jesus Christ can free Christians from any sin (John 8:34-36).
Queller said in post #645:
What on earth makes you think the mountain referred to in Matthew [4:8] is Mt. Zion?
It's the mount Zion in heaven (Hebrews 12:22), from where the earth can be viewed (Psalms 102:19).
Queller said in post #645:
[Re: Matthew 20:29-30]
Not according to Mark 10:46-52 and Luke 18:35-43. In those accounts Jesus only heals one man.
They don't say "only". They simply focus on one of the two men in Matthew 20:29-30.
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Queller said in post #646:
[Re: Then can the practice of pedophilia be accepted because what pedophiles do is their genetic "sexual orientation"?]
I see you don't understand what "consent" means.
Note that in our future, pedophilia could be legalized in all cases where "consent" has been established in court, or by some other legal means.
As an example, imagine that a man is brought before a municipal court on charges of pedophilia with a thirteen-year-old boy. The defendant's counsel brings the boy to the stand to testify.
"Can you say whether you have been harmed by the defendant?"
"No, sir. I have been in no way harmed, but only loved. Preciously loved, like I have never known before."
"Then he did not force himself upon you?"
"No, in no way. He has loved me tenderly from the start. He fills me up with his love. He is my lover. My man. I cannot imagine living without him."
At this point, the defendant's upper lip begins to quiver. And in the jury, a woman's eyes well up with tears. She dabs them with a tissue.
Then the defendant's counsel brings a respected psychiatrist to the stand to testify. The defendant's counsel tells the judge:
"Your honor, the next witness is an advocate for homosexuality and transgenderism, who has proven in peer-reviewed articles in top psychiatric journals that neither homosexuality nor transgenderism per se requires any mental illness whatsoever. To reject her testimony would be to reject these normal expressions of human sexuality, just as I hope to show the court that pedophilia can also be a normal expression of human sexuality."
Judge: "Proceed".
Defendant's counsel to the psychiatrist: "Has the defendant abused the child mentally?"
"Not at all. He has shown the child only gentleness, kindness, and love. I have thoroughly examined the child psychiatrically, and he is in perfect mental and emotional health. It would be a total crime to separate him from his lover."
The judge shifts in his seat. For his municipal jurisdiction has clearly outlawed pedophilia.
But at the end of the trial, the jury goes to deliberations and uses "jury nullification" to declare the pedophile innocent. (Jury nullification allows a jury to declare a defendant innocent regardless of the law or the facts in a case.)
The prosecutor appeals to state court, which agrees with him that the law has been broken. But the defendant appeals to federal district court, which agrees with him that no harm, and so no crime, has been committed. The prosecutor appeals to federal circuit court, which agrees with him, saying that the local jurisdiction had the right to outlaw pedophilia in every case. But the defendant appeals to the Supreme Court, which rules that pedophilia is lawful in every case where the child's consent and mental health have been proven beyond a reasonable doubt.
And so pedophilia joins homosexuality and transgenderism as a normal, lawful expression of human sexuality. Pedophilia becomes just another natural, "sexual orientation". Pedophiles become simply "lovers of children", the literal meaning of the word "pedo-phile".
And then the SPLC begins to persecute as "hate groups" any Christian groups who continue to say that pedophilia is sinful.
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Queller said in post #648:
[Re: Jesus Christ can cure anything by His miraculous power (Mark 5:25-34)]
Then how come He never heals amputees?
He could, for He can even raise people from the dead (John 12:1). And he will cure obedient Christian amputees by resurrecting them at His future, Second Coming into perfect, immortal, physical resurrection bodies (1 Corinthians 15:21-23,51-58, Philippians 3:21, Luke 24:39, Romans 8:23-25).
Indeed, even Christians who will be beheaded in our future will be physically resurrected (Revelation 20:4-6).
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Queller said in post #649:
[Re: Romans 1:26-27]
Can you point to the location of those verses in the Constitution?
They would be included as part of the protection of religion from the government as required by the First Amendment.
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Queller said in post #650:
At no time has prayer ever been outlawed in public schools.
It has, since 1962.
Queller said in post #650:
Students are free to pray whenever they are not actively engaging in classroom activities.
No, they aren't. For example, they can't have a prayer said at graduation or at a school football game.
Queller said in post #650:
What has been taken out of schools is the ability of teachers and administrators to force children to participate in the Christian religion against their will.
No, even voluntary prayers are forbidden at school events.
Queller said in post #650:
It was a sinful nation long before forced prayer was removed from the schools and long before abortion and same-sex marriage were legalized.
Not as sinful. Everyone knows that the U.S. began to lose its moral compass beginning in the 1960's, after school prayer was outlawed.
Queller said in post #650:
[Re: Also, it has never been proven that homosexuality is inborn]
All the evidence points to that conclusion.
No, it doesn't. Also, even if homosexuality could ever be proven to be genetic, so could alcoholism, criminal violence, and schizophrenia. Human genes in their current, fallen, corrupted state have nothing to do with proving what is moral, or what is good mental health.
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Queller said in post #651:
How do you explain the existence of the Fellowship of Christian Athletes, the Interfaith Society, and others at my daughter's high school here in ultra-liberal Maryland?
They can't have a prayer said before their school games or other activities.
Queller said in post #651:
Floyd County High School Students Allowed to Post Religious Messages on Lockers
Their own lockers. But they can't pray out loud at school activities, even if everyone in the school is Christian and wants to pray.
So their "free exercise" of religion has been denied by the government, just as homosexuals now want to deny the free exercise of Biblical Christianity to not support sinful events (Ephesians 5:11).
Queller said in post #651:
[Re: A change in behavior shows a change in orientation]
No, it does not.
It does. For without a change in orientation there would be no arousal for a change in behavior.
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