Were Gentiles saved in the OT? If so, how?
Really? So there were no Gentiles in heaven before Jesus walked this earth?
This is in regard to salvation and standing before God, but Paul goes on to say that Israel's gifts and calling are irrevocable and that to THEM were given the oracles of God.
Abraham was saved as a Gentile. And that by faith apart from works (Rom 4:1,2)
What do you guys think about it? It's kind of obvious that they have a special role in God's plan, but are jews always saved the same way then gentiles? If not, how is their path to salvation different?
What makes you think that they, as a group, will be saved at all?
No one who denies the Son has the Father. Whoever confesses the Son has the Father also. (1 John 2:23)
James 2
21 Was not Abraham our father justified by works perfect?
23 And the Scripture was fulfilled which says, accounted to him for righteousness.” And he was called the friend of God.
24 You see then that a man is justified by works, and not by faith only.
This is in regard to salvation and standing before God, but Paul goes on to say that Israel's gifts and calling are irrevocable and that to THEM were given the oracles of God.
Paul said to Peter (both being Jewish) We who are Jews by nature, and not sinners of the Gentiles, "knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law but by faith in Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Christ Jesus, that we might be justified by faith in Christ and not by the works of the law; for by the works of the law no flesh shall be justified."
Same for Jew and Gentile alike.
Where did the 'dead' go?
James 2
21 Was not Abraham our father justified by works perfect?
23 And the Scripture was fulfilled which says, accounted to him for righteousness.” And he was called the friend of God.
24 You see then that a man is justified by works, and not by faith only.
James was wrong. He was in opposition to Paul who said, "What then shall we say that Abraham, our forefather, discovered in this matter? If, in fact, Abraham was justified by works, he had something to boast about— but not before God. What does the Scripture say? "Abraham believed God, and it was credited to him as righteousness." Rom 4:1-3
Paul used Gen 15:5,6 to prove that justification is by faith apart from works by showing that Abraham believed the promise and then there was no intervening work between his belief and his justification in Gen 15:6.
James on the other hand viewed the promise of Gen 15:6 as only a prophecy not fulfilled until over a decade later when Abraham did a work of faith.
And since they're both referencing Gen 15:6 they're both speaking of the same "justification". These are logically incompatible statements. Paul is right, James is wrong.
In context, I think that Peter and Paul were saying that conversion to Judaism does not justify anyone (works of law would be the requirements of second temple Judaism to convert from paganism: circumcision, immersion, sacrifice.)
Nope. He says "We".
We who are Jews by nature, and not sinners of the Gentiles, knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law but by faith in Jesus Christ, even WE have believed in Christ Jesus, that we might be justified by faith in Christ and not by the works of the law; for by the works of the law no flesh shall be justified.
He's not saying, "those people who are converts to Judaism"
Really? Who chooses which one is right and which one is wrong?
"Now the Bereans were of more noble character than the Thessalonians, for they received the message with great eagerness and examined the Scriptures every day to see if what Paul said was true." Acts 17:11
James was not an apostle. Paul was God's chosen apostle to Jews and Gentiles. Since they contradict each other, one is wrong. Which one?