what tell us the Gospel about the death sentences

Porque77

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The verses you cited do not contradict what I said. The phrase "eye for an eye" was intended to be used as a guideline by judges for fair sentencing where the punishment was not lesser or greater than the crime, but it was not intended to be used by us to justify personal revenge, and it was this abuse that Jesus was speaking against in those verses.
That's not how you say it. Jesus annuled the law that commanded men to apply "an eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth". And He annulled it because it was not true Law of God, but precept of men, because Jesus did not come to annul the Law of God, since the true Law that God had given was a Law for all times and for all the men.

You must understand that the true commandments of God are those that Jesus Christ teaches us in the Gospel, and not the Old Testament commandments that Jesus annulled.
 
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Soyeong

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That's not how you say it. Jesus annuled the law that commanded men to apply "an eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth". And He annulled it because it was not true Law of God, but precept of men, because Jesus did not come to annul the Law of God, since the true Law that God had given was a Law for all times and for all the men.

You must understand that the true commandments of God are those that Jesus Christ teaches us in the Gospel, and not the Old Testament commandments that Jesus annulled.

The Mosaic Law was commanded by God through Moses, so there is no law in it that is not part of the Law of God. There is absolutely nothing with applying "an eye for an eye and a tood for a tooth" as it was intended to be as a guideline for judges for fair sentencing where the punishment should not be out of proportion to the crime. There is something wrong with abusing that guideline as a justification for personal revenge, and this is what Jesus was speaking against. He was not speaking against obeying the Mosaic Law, but against what the people had heard being taught about it. I gave Matthew 5:43 as a clear example of the people being incorrectly taught that the Law says to hate your enemy when it says no such thing, and there is no way to interpret Jesus as speaking against the Law when he was speaking against something that isn't found in it. The Mosaic Law was given to reveal what sin is and Jesus was sinless, so he set a perfect example of how to walk in obedience to it, which means that in the Gospels he taught to obey the Mosaic Law by example, and we are told to follow his example (1 Peter 2:21-22).
 
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Porque77

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The Mosaic Law was commanded by God through Moses, so there is no law in it that is not part of the Law of God.
In the Law that God really gave to Moses there is no law that is not part of the Law of God. But you must understand that the Law that God really gave Moses are the commandments that Jesus Christ taught us in the Gospel, not all the commandments that are written in the Old Testament, because in the Old Testament there are written many commandments that are only precepts of men, because the Law of God was changed by the scribes, as the prophets tell us:

"...but my people know not the ordinance of the LORD. "How can you say, 'We are wise, and the law of the LORD is with us'? But, behold, the false pen of the scribes has made it into a lie". (Jeremiah 8:7-8)

"Woe to those who give wicked laws and scribes who write tyrannical prescriptions to set aside the poor and violate the rights of the underdog of my people, to rob widows and orphans" (Isaiah 10.1 -2)

"And the land is defiled under its inhabitants, because they have transgressed the laws, changed the commandments, broken the everlasting covenant" (Isaiah 24: 5-6).


There is absolutely nothing with applying "an eye for an eye and a tood for a tooth" as it was intended to be as a guideline for judges for fair sentencing where the punishment should not be out of proportion to the crime. There is something wrong with abusing that guideline as a justification for personal revenge, and this is what Jesus was speaking against.
It is not true what you say, because you want make to believe that "an eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth" was intended to be a guideline for judges for fair sentencing where the punishment should not be out of proportion to the crime, and you say that Jesus was speaking against applying that law as a justification for personal revenge. But and Jesus don't teach what you say. Jesus teaches that the eye for an eye and tooth for a tooth should not be applied in any way, because it says that to anyone who strikes you on one cheek, you must also turn the othe cheek. And that's what I was telling you:

Jesus abolished the commandment that commanded men to apply an eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth, because Jesus said "whoever slaps you on your right cheek, turn to him the other also," then no man should injure or kill other men. Therefore, the "an eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth" was annulled by Jesus:

"You have heard that it was said, 'Eye for eye, and tooth for tooth.' But I tell you, Do not resist an evil person but whoever slaps you on your right cheek, turn to him the other also, and whosoever want to get to sue you and take your tunic, let him have your coat also, and whosoever shall compel thee to go one mile, go with him twain. Give to him that asketh thee, and from him that would borrow of thee turn not thou away" (Matthew 5:...)

............ in the Gospels he taught to obey the Mosaic Law by example, and we are told to follow his example
But the Law that God really gave to Moses are the commandments that Jesus Christ taught us in the Gospel, not the commandments that are written in the Old Testament that were annuled by Jesus. And the commandments that Jesus taught in the Gospel are the commandments that Jesus fulfilled and obeyed, for Jesus did not obey the Old Testament commandments that commanded men to do harm and kill people. For example, Jesus did not obey the law that he commanded to kill to stones the woman that the Jews brought before Jesus, as I said to you:

..... Jesus said:

"But when they continued asking him, he lifted up himself, and said unto them, He that is without sin among you, let him first cast a stone at her. And again he stooped down, and with his finger wrote on the ground. And they, when they heard it, went out one by one, beginning from the eldest, even unto the last: and Jesus was left alone, and the woman, where she was, in the midst". (Juan 8:3-12)


As you see, Jesus said: " He that is without sin among you, let him first cast a stone at her". So no man should kill other men, and nor no man should have killed other men in any age, for all men are sinners.

And Jesus, who is the only one free from sin, did not condemn the woman either:

"And Jesus lifted up himself, and said unto her, Woman, where are they? did no man condemn thee? And she said, No man, Lord. And Jesus said, Neither do I condemn thee: go thy way; from henceforth sin no more". (Juan 8:3-12)

You must understand that Jesus, with his teachings and his own example, annulled the Old Testament laws that commanded men to kill people, since Jesus abolished from the old testament all the commandments that were not true Law of God, but precepts of men, because Jesus did not come to abolish the true Law of God.

The Law that Jesus came not to abolish, from which shall pass not one jot or one tittle, is the Law of the Gospel, which is the true Law of God. But Jesus Christ abolished many commandments of the Old Testament (Matthew 5:31-48, Matthew 12:1-8, John 5:8-11, John 5:16-18, John 8:3-11 and the whole context of the Gospel). And He abolished them because weren't God's commandments, but precepts of men.

The Gospel says: "Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets.... one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law" (Matthew 5:17-20) .


In these words are based many religions to tell us that Jesus Christ came not to abolish the commandments of the Old Testament, but that is a mistake because these gospel words do not refer to the law of the Old Testament, because Jesus Christ abolished many commandments of the Old Testament, as we see in Matthew 5: 21-48 and other parts of the Gospel.

The words of Jesus Christ in this famous verse (Matthew 5: 17), which tells us that He did not come to abolish the Law and the Prophets, refers to the true Law of God, which is the Law that Jesus Christ himself taught us in the Gospel. Jesus Christ teaches that the law and the prophets that He did not come to abolish is the following:

"All things whatsoever ye would that men should do to you, do ye even so to them: for this is the law and the prophets" (Matthew 7: 12) .

Therefore, this is the law that God gave to Israel because Jesus Christ himself says that "this is the law and the prophets". This is the law that remains in effect, that Jesus Christ came not to abolish ("Think not that I came to destroy the Law or the Prophets"). And of this law did pass "not one jot not one tittle", of the Law that Jesus Christ teaches us in the Gospel and that is the true Law that God gave to Moses.
 
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Soyeong

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In the Law that God really gave to Moses there is no law that is not part of the Law of God. But you must understand that the Law that God really gave Moses are the commandments that Jesus Christ taught us in the Gospel, not all the commandments that are written in the Old Testament, because in the Old Testament there are written many commandments that are only precepts of men, because the Law of God was changed by the scribes, as the prophets tell us:

"...but my people know not the ordinance of the LORD. "How can you say, 'We are wise, and the law of the LORD is with us'? But, behold, the false pen of the scribes has made it into a lie". (Jeremiah 8:7-8)

"Woe to those who give wicked laws and scribes who write tyrannical prescriptions to set aside the poor and violate the rights of the underdog of my people, to rob widows and orphans" (Isaiah 10.1 -2)

"And the land is defiled under its inhabitants, because they have transgressed the laws, changed the commandments, broken the everlasting covenant" (Isaiah 24: 5-6).


The scribe's job of copying the scroll was in vain because they weren't abiding by it. It is talking about them rejecting God's Word by not living by it even though they claimed to and by giving false prophecies, not about them changing it. It is the same thing being expressed in Matthew 15:9 that they worshiped God in vain or making it of no effect because they were teaching as doctrines the commands of men. If the scribes had change God's Word, then why would they say that they lied? In order to know that something has been changed, you need to know what it has been changed from. The NT authors quoted or alluded to the OT thousands of times as being authoritative, so they did not consider it to be corrupted. And if the OT has been corrupted, then you can't pick and choose which parts are authentic.

It is not true what you say, because you want make to believe that "an eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth" was intended to be a guideline for judges for fair sentencing where the punishment should not be out of proportion to the crime, and you say that Jesus was speaking against applying that law as a justification for personal revenge. But and Jesus don't teach what you say. Jesus teaches that the eye for an eye and tooth for a tooth should not be applied in any way, because it says that to anyone who strikes you on one cheek, you must also turn the othe cheek. And that's what I was telling you:


It is not clear to me why you are trying to use an example of Jesus speaking against using the law as justification for personal revenge to showing that he was not doing that.

But the Law that God really gave to Moses are the commandments that Jesus Christ taught us in the Gospel, not the commandments that are written in the Old Testament that were annuled by Jesus. And the commandments that Jesus taught in the Gospel are the commandments that Jesus fulfilled and obeyed, for Jesus did not obey the Old Testament commandments that commanded men to do harm and kill people. For example, Jesus did not obey the law that he commanded to kill to stones the woman that the Jews brought before Jesus, as I said to you:

Jesus was sinless, so he lived in perfect obedience to all of the commands of the OT, so even if he had said nothing, he still would have taught obedience to it by example, and as his followers we are told to follow his example (1 Peter 2:21-22), so all of the OT is taught in the NT. To fulfill the Law is to make God's will as made known in the law to be obeyed as it should be, and that is precisely what Jesus did by word and by example. Jesus did not sin in violation of Deuteronomy 4:2 by annulling anything commanded in the OT, he only spoke against what was wrongly being taught about how to obey what the Father commanded. He was not saying that judges shouldn't judge people fairly, but that in personal matters, such as someone slapping you on the cheek, we shouldn't use a guideline meant for judges as justification for revenge in that personal matter.

John 8:1-12 is example of Jesus following the Law rather than making changes to how it is obeyed. There was no judge to pronounce a sentence (Deuteronomy 19:17-21), there was no man accused (Leviticus 20:10), he didn't have any witnesses to examine (Numbers 35:30, Deuteronomy 19:5), and he did not have a confession, so if he had condemned her, then he would have acted in violation of the Law. Just a few verses later Jesus said that he judged no one (John 8:15) and he also said that he came not to judge (John 12:47), so he did not exercise authority as a magistrate and did not condemn her, but he did recognize her action as sin, and told her to go and sin no more.
 
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Porque77

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The scribe's job of copying the scroll was in vain because they weren't abiding by it. It is talking about them rejecting God's Word by not living by it even though they claimed to and by giving false prophecies, not about them changing it..........
That is not true. The prophets say that the LAW of God was changed into a lie:

"...but my people know not the ordinance of the LORD. "How can you say, 'We are wise, and the law of the LORD is with us'? But, behold, the false pen of the scribes has made it into a lie". (Jeremiah 8:7-8)


The NT authors quoted or alluded to the OT thousands of times as being authoritative, so they did not consider it to be corrupted.
Jesus Christ abolished many commandments of the Old Testament (Matthew 5:31-48, Matthew 12:1-8, John 5:8-11, John 5:16-18, John 8:3-11 and the whole context of the Gospel). And He abolished them because weren't God's commandments, but precepts of men, because Jesus did not come to abolish the true God's Law.

And if the OT has been corrupted, then you can't pick and choose which parts are authentic.
The commandmets that aren't contrary to the Gospel are authentics, but the commandmets that are contrary to the Gospel aren't authentics, because the Gospel teach us the true God's commandments.


 
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LittleLambofJesus

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football5680 said:
This is Jesus quoting the Old Testament so the meaning must remain the same. The Old Testament prohibition was against murder, not killing which is permissible in war and in carrying out the law......
Revelation uses the word for murder 1 time
[there is a different word for killing #615]

Strong's Concordance with Hebrew and Greek Lexicon

Mat 15:19
for out of the heart come forth evil thoughts, murders/fonwn <5408>, adulteries, whoredoms, thefts, false witnessings, evil speakings:

Rom 1:29
having been filled with all unrighteousness, whoredom, wickedness, covetousness, malice; full of envy, murdersfonwn <5408>, strife, deceit, evil dispositions; whisperers,

James 5:6
Ye condemn, ye murder/efoneusate <5407> (5656) the Righteous-One, not He is resisting to ye.

Revelation 9:21
And not they reform out of the murders/fonwn <5408> of them, nor out from their sorceries, nor from their whoredoms, nor from their thefts.

the definition of murder

noun
1.
Law. the killing of another human being under conditions specifically covered in law. In the U.S., special statutory definitions include murder committed with malice aforethought, characterized by deliberation or premeditation or occurring during the commission of another serious crime, as robbery or arson (first-degree murder) and murder by intent but without deliberation or premeditation (second-degree murder)[/quote][/quote]
 
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Soyeong

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That is not true. The prophets say that the LAW of God was changed into a lie:

"...but my people know not the ordinance of the LORD. "How can you say, 'We are wise, and the law of the LORD is with us'? But, behold, the false pen of the scribes has made it into a lie". (Jeremiah 8:7-8)


I showed how that doesn't refer to the Law of God being changed, so feel free to interact with what I've said instead of just repeating your position.

Jesus Christ abolished many commandments of the Old Testament (Matthew 5:31-48, Matthew 12:1-8, John 5:8-11, John 5:16-18, John 8:3-11 and the whole context of the Gospel). And He abolished them because weren't God's commandments, but precepts of men, because Jesus did not come to abolish the true God's Law.


I showed how none of those verses are examples of Jesus making any changes to the OT, so again, please feel free to interact with what I've said about those verses instead of just repeating your position. For example, in Matthew 5:43, Jesus was speaking against the teaching to hate your enemies, and nowhere in the OT does it say to hate your enemies, so he couldn't have been speaking against anything found in the OT.

The commandmets that aren't contrary to the Gospel are authentics, but the commandmets that are contrary to the Gospel aren't authentics, because the Gospel teach us the true God's commandments.

None of the commands in the OT are contrary to the Gospel, but rather they are in perfect accordance with them. Jesus began his ministry with the Gospel message to to repent from our sins for the Kingdom of God is at hand, and the Law is how the people knew which things were sin, so repenting from our disobedience to the Law is an integral part of the Gospel message. The NT authors quoted or alluded to the OT thousands of times to establish that it supported what they said and that they didn't depart from it, so they clearly did not consider it to be corrupted. In Acts 17:11, the Bereans were praised because they diligently searched OT Scriptures every day to test if what Paul said was true rather that criticized for use a corrupted document. The OT is how we know what is said in the NT is true, so to try to say that the OT is corrupted is to try to saw off the branch you are sitting on.
 
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Soyeong

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Jesus didn't say that Moses implementing divorce was corruption of scripture per sa but He did speak to correct the law.

In Matthew 19:3-6, Jesus was asked whether it was permissible for a man to divorce his wife for any reason, so it is important to understand the background of this question. In Mishnah Giṭṭin 9:10, Rabbi Hillel taught that a man could divorce his wife if she spoiled his meal, such as burning his toast, and Rabbi Akivah interpreted "if she does not find favor in his eyes" to mean that a man could divorce his wife if he found someone prettier than her. So Jesus was not sinning in violation of Deuteronomy 4:2 by correcting the Law, but was simply correcting what was wrongly being taught about it.
 
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Porque77

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I showed how that doesn't refer to the Law of God being changed.............
You contradict what the prophets say, because the prophets tell us that the scribes had changed the God's Law:

"...but my people know not the ordinance of the LORD. "How can you say, 'We are wise, and the law of the LORD is with us'? But, behold, the false pen of the scribes has made it into a lie". (Jeremiah 8:7-8)

"Woe to those who give wicked laws and scribes who write tyrannical prescriptions to set aside the poor and violate the rights of the underdog of my people, to rob widows and orphans" (Isaiah 10.1 -2)

"And the land is defiled under its inhabitants, because they have transgressed the laws, changed the commandments, broken the everlasting covenant" (Isaiah 24: 5-6).

"Her prophets are light and treacherous persons: her priests have polluted the sanctuary, they have falsified the law". (Zephaniah 3:4)

" My covenant was with him of life and peace........ The law of truth was in his mouth....... But ye are departed out of the way; ye have caused many to stumble at the law; ye have corrupted the covenant of Levi, saith the LORD of hosts" (Malachi 2:5-8)
 
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Porque77

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When Jesus quoted from Scripture, he proceeded by saying "it is written", but when he was quoting from what his audience had heard being taught about Scripture, he proceeded it by saying "you have heard that it was said". So Jesus was not speaking against any OT Laws, but against the precepts of precepts of men that were being incorrectly taught about them. (.......)
What you say is not true, because Jesus quoted and abolished laws written in the Old Testament, for example "An eye for an eye, and a tooth for a tooth".

Jesus, with teachings of the Gospel, abolished the Old Testament commandments that ordered to men hurt and kill the people.

Later I'll see the rest of your answer.
 
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1213

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What you say is not true, because Jesus quoted and abolished laws written in the Old Testament

Sorry, I think that is not correct, because Jesus said:

"Don't think that I came to destroy the law or the prophets. I didn't come to destroy, but to fulfill. For most assuredly, I tell you, until heaven and earth pass away, not even one smallest letter or one tiny pen stroke shall in any way pass away from the law, until all things are accomplished. Whoever, therefore, shall break one of these least commandments, and teach others to do so, shall be called least in the Kingdom of Heaven; but whoever shall do and teach them shall be called great in the Kingdom of Heaven.
Mat. 5:17-19

What Jesus did is that he forgave, revoked the judgment that would rightfully come because of transgression of the law. Still, the law is valid and for example people should not murder.

Law tells what is right and wrong and it is the job of judge to declare the judgment. It is not always necessary to give the punishment, even if the law is valid.
 
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Porque77

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What you say is not true, because Jesus quoted and abolished laws written in the Old Testament, for example "An eye for an eye, and a tooth for a tooth".

Jesus, with teachings of the Gospel, abolished the Old Testament commandments that ordered to men hurt and kill the people.

Sorry, I think that is not correct, because Jesus said:

"Don't think that I came to destroy the law or the prophets. I didn't come to destroy, but to fulfill. For most assuredly, I tell you, until heaven and earth pass away, not even one smallest letter or one tiny pen stroke shall in any way pass away from the law, .........
The Law that Jesus came not to abolish, from which shall pass not one jot or one tittle, is the Law of the Gospel, which is the true Law of God. But Jesus Christ abolished many commandments of the Old Testament (Matthew 5:31-48, Matthew 12:1-8, John 5:8-11, John 5:16-18, John 8:3-11 and the whole context of the Gospel). And He abolished them because weren't God's commandments, but precepts of men.

The Gospel says: "Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets.... one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law" (Matthew 5:17-20) .


In these words are based many religions to tell us that Jesus Christ came not to abolish the commandments of the Old Testament, but that is a mistake because these gospel words do not refer to the law of the Old Testament, because Jesus Christ abolished many commandments of the Old Testament, as we see in Matthew 5: 21-48 and other parts of the Gospel.

The words of Jesus Christ in this famous verse (Matthew 5: 17), which tells us that He did not come to abolish the Law and the Prophets, refers to the true Law of God, which is the Law that Jesus Christ himself taught us in the Gospel. Jesus Christ teaches that the law and the prophets that He did not come to abolish is the following:

"All things whatsoever ye would that men should do to you, do ye even so to them: for this is the law and the prophets" (Matthew 7: 12) .

Therefore, this is the law that God gave to Israel because Jesus Christ himself says that "this is the law and the prophets". This is the law that remains in effect, that Jesus Christ came not to abolish ("Think not that I came to destroy the Law or the Prophets"). And of this law did pass "not one jot not one tittle", of the Law that Jesus Christ teaches us in the Gospel and that is the true Law that God gave to Moses.

Now I also remember the Law of Jesus Christ expressed in commandments, as the Gospel teaches:


"And behold, one came to him and said, Teacher, what good thing shall I do, that I may have eternal life? And he said unto him, Why askest thou me concerning that which is good? One there is who is good: but if thou wouldest enter into life, keep the commandments. He saith unto him, Which? And Jesus said, Thou shalt not kill, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness, Honor thy father and mother; and, Thou shalt love thy neighbor as thyself. The young man saith unto him, All these things have I observed: what lack I yet? Jesus said unto him, If thou wouldest be perfect, go, sell that which thou hast, and give to the poor, and thou shalt have treasure in heaven: and come, follow me. But when the young man heard the saying, he went away sorrowful; for he was one that had great possessions" (Matthew 19: 16-22

And this law and these commandments are in effect for all peoples.

However, no one is under the laws of the Old Testament that were abolished by Jesus Christ, because those laws were not true Law of God, but precepts of men. We are all under the Law and the commandments of Christ, which are the only true Law of God.
 
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1213

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…Jesus Christ abolished many commandments of the Old Testament, as we see in Matthew 5: 21-48 and other parts of the Gospel.

Is that really correct scripture you wanted to show? I don’t see Jesus abolishing anything in that.
 
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Porque77

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...... Jesus Christ abolished many commandments of the Old Testament, as we see in Matthew 5: 21-48 and other parts of the Gospel.......

Is that real correct scripture you wanted to show? I don’t see Jesus abolishing anything in that.
I said: "Jesus Christ abolished many commandments of the Old Testament, as we see in Matthew 5: 21-48 and other parts of the Gospel". And it seems that you do not want to see it, but Jesus annulled laws like the one that commanded men "an eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth", kill people, or do them some harm. Jesus annulled all those laws because He commanded mercy and forgiveness for all.
 
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1213

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....Jesus annulled laws like the one that commanded men "an eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth", kill people, or do them some harm. Jesus annulled all those laws because He commanded mercy and forgiveness for all.

Actually, law tells only what is good and right. Jesus didn’t annul that. But he annulled the judgment that would come by the law. It is different thing, judge have had right to be merciful, even before Jesus. And judge is the one who decides what the judgment will be, law tells only what is right or wrong.
 
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Porque77

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........ Jesus annulled laws like the one that commanded men "an eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth", kill people, or do them some harm. Jesus annulled all those laws because He commanded mercy and forgiveness for all.

Actually, law tells only what is good and right. Jesus didn’t annul that. But he annulled the judgment that would come by the law. It is different thing, judge have had right to be merciful, even before Jesus. And judge is the one who decides what the judgment will be, law tells only what is right or wrong.
In the scriptures there are many commandments that are not merciful, and those commandments were not really given by God, that is why Jesus annulled them.

The commandments that Jesus teaches us in the Gospel are the commandments that were actually given by God in the time of Moses.
 
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Ron Gurley

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Just the Biblical FACTS, Jack!!

Matthew 19:18b
...And Jesus said,
“You shall not commit murder...

COMMIT MURDER...Greek 5407...phoneuō...
from G5406; to be a murderer (of):do murder, slay.(kill)

And "Moses said:
Exodus 20:13...“You shall not murder.

You shall not murder...Hebrew 7523...ratsach...
I.to murder, slay, (kill)
A.(Qal) to murder, slay
i.premeditated
ii.accidental
iii.as avenger
iv.slayer (intentional) (participle)
B.(Niphal) to be slain
C.(Piel)
i.to murder, assassinate
ii.murderer, assassin (participle)(subst)
D.(Pual) to be killed

Paul on "capital punishment":

Romans 13 (NASB)...Be Subject to Government who has the power of a killing sword
1 Every person (believer) is to be in subjection to the governing authorities.
For there is no authority except from God, and those which exist are established by God.
2 Therefore whoever resists (governing) authority has opposed the ordinance of God;
and they who have opposed will receive condemnation upon themselves.
3 For rulers are not a cause of fear for good behavior, but for evil.
Do you want to have no fear of authority? Do what is good and you will have praise from the same;
4 for it is a minister of God to you for good.
But if you do what is evil, be afraid;
for it does not bear the sword for nothing;
for it is a minister of God, an avenger who brings wrath on the one who practices evil.

5 Therefore it is necessary to be in subjection, not only because of wrath, but also for conscience’ sake.
 
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1213

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In the scriptures there are many commandments that are not merciful, and those commandments were not really given by God, that is why Jesus annulled them...

Maybe you already told it but please give one example of commandment that is not merciful and of commandment that is merciful?

I think commandments are not the judge. It is only the source of what is good and right. Judge is the one who decides what will be the judgment. And for judges it is said:

"Thus has Yahweh of Hosts spoken, saying, 'Execute true judgment, and show kindness and compassion every man to his brother.
Zechariah 7:9
 
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Porque77

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That is not true, for Jesus was saying to cast the first stone against the woman any man who had never sinned among those men who wanted to kill the woman, and Jesus did not say anything about who was free from sin in the matter that they were witnessing, that is an interpretation of you, not what Jesus said:

"But when they continued asking him, he lifted up himself, and said unto them, He that is without sin among you, let him first cast a stone at her. And again he stooped down, and with his finger wrote on the ground. And they, when they heard it, went out one by one, beginning from the eldest, even unto the last: and Jesus was left alone, and the woman, where she was, in the midst". (Juan 8:3-12)


As you see, Jesus said: " He that is without sin among you, let him first cast a stone at her". So no man should kill other men, and nor no man should have killed other men in any age, for all men are sinners.

And Jesus, who is the only one free from sin, did not condemn the woman either:

"And Jesus lifted up himself, and said unto her, Woman, where are they? did no man condemn thee? And she said, No man, Lord. And Jesus said, Neither do I condemn thee: go thy way; from henceforth sin no more". (Juan 8:3-12)

You must understand that Jesus, with his teachings and his own example, annulled the Old Testament laws that commanded men to kill people, since Jesus abolished from the old testament all the commandments that were not true Law of God, but precepts of men, because Jesus did not come to abolish the true Law of God.

The witnesses in a trial needed to be sinless in the matter they were testifying against or else they would also condemn themselves, but it was not needed for the witness to have lived a completely sinless life, otherwise no one could act as a witness. It would make no sense whatsoever for God to give commands that called for them to enforce the death penalty and in regard to witnesses if it were impossible for them to obey that commands.
What you do not understand is that God did not order men the death penalty. precisely Jesus said that whoever was free from sin throw the first stone against the woman so that men would understand that no one should kill people, because all men are sinners. And to further confirm that men should not and should never have killed people, Jesus, being the only one who was sinless, also did not condemn the woman, thus giving us his example so that men do not kill people.
 
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