Your post here is so full of error confusion mix up etcNote that John 6:53-57 shows that all Christians, for their ultimate salvation, must eat the bread of Communion (Matthew 26:26), and drink the wine of Communion (Matthew 26:27-29), which actually become the body and blood of Jesus Christ (1 Corinthians 11:27-30), in some spiritual manner (John 6:63).
In 1 Corinthians 11:29, "discerning the Lord's body" means that when Christians partake of Communion (1 Corinthians 11:23-29), they must discern that the bread and wine are the actual body and blood of Jesus Christ (John 6:53-56) in some spiritual manner (John 6:63), or they may suffer the consequences (1 Corinthians 11:30).
The bread and wine become Christ's flesh and blood by faith, which is not seen (Hebrews 11:1), that is, which is something which God purposely designed so that it cannot be scientifically proven (1 Corinthians 2:11-16), just as Christ's very death and resurrection themselves, the very heart of the Gospel (1 Corinthians 15:1-4), cannot be scientifically proven.
Apart from transubstantiation, how could a Christian become "guilty of the body and blood of the Lord" (1 Corinthians 11:27) simply by eating a piece of bread, and taking a sip of wine?
Also, how could Galatians 3:1b have been true apart from transubstantiation?
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Note that Romans 8:3 is not (as is sometimes clamed) denying that Jesus Christ is in flesh per se. For the apostle Paul had started out the book of Romans by saying that Jesus "was made of the seed of David according to the flesh" (Romans 1:3). And the whole point of Romans 8:3 is that Jesus was made flesh so that on the Cross sin could be condemned in the flesh (Romans 8:3c; 2 Corinthians 5:21). Instead, Romans 8:3 is denying that Jesus was sent into the world in "sinful" flesh. For Jesus was without sin (Hebrews 4:15; 2 Corinthians 5:21).
Romans 5:19a is the doctrine of original sin, which could be based on everyone having been in some way in "the loins" of Adam when he sinned, so that everyone in some way committed sin when Adam sinned; just as Levi had been in some way in "the loins" of Abraham when Abraham gave a tithe to Melchisedec, so that Levi in some way gave a tithe to Melchisedec when Abraham did (Hebrews 7:9-10).
Because of original sin, we are all guilty as individuals as soon as we are conceived in the womb (Psalms 51:5). So even as babies, we are sinful (Psalms 58:3, Romans 3:10). But original sin isn't our only guiltiness before God. For we have all as individuals committed our own sins, by our own free will (Romans 3:23,9-12). No one can master sin (Genesis 4:7b), or put to death the lusts of the flesh (Galatians 5:24), without the miraculous help of God's Holy Spirit (Romans 8:13b), who is given to Christians (1 Corinthians 2:12-16).
If original sin is genetic, could it be passed on only through the male "seed", so that Jesus Christ could be conceived without original sin by being conceived without any human father (Luke 1:34-35)?
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John 6:63 means that flesh by itself can't give us eternal life. John 6:63b isn't (as is sometimes clamed) contradicting that Jesus Christ's words can refer to the flesh. For example, Mark 10:33-34 was fulfilled in the flesh (Luke 24:39). So "spirit" in John 6:63 doesn't mean "wholly apart from the flesh".
I have to respond later it’s late here
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