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Gordon backs out of this thread quietly hoping not to wake the inmates.....
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Gordon backs out of this thread quietly hoping not to wake the inmates.....
Is the KJV only view a false view of preaching or studying the Bible? I am just wondering because I believe all translations are written about the same things? They are translations, not a promotion of false doctrine. When did the KJV only view take place? Why would it be considered more accurate than the NKJV and other translations?
Good questions all. With regard to the last question ----
The King James Version of the New Testament was based upon a Greek text (the Textus Receptus) that was marred by mistakes, containing the accumulated errors of fourteen centuries of manuscript copying. It was essentially the Greek text of the New Testament as edited by Beza, 1589, who closely followed that published by Erasmus, 1516-1535, which was based upon a few medieval manuscripts. The earliest and best of the eight manuscripts which Erasmus consulted was from the tenth century, and yet he made the least use of it because it differed most from the commonly received text; Beza had access to two manuscripts of great value, dating from the fifth and sixth centuries, but he made very little use of them because they differed from the text published by Erasmus. We now possess many more ancient manuscripts (about 9000 compared to just 10) of the New Testament, and thanks to another 400 years of biblical scholarship, are far better equipped to seek to recover the original wording of the Greek text. Much as we might love the KJV and the majesty of it’s Jacobean English, modern translations are more accurate.
Is the KJV only view a false view of preaching or studying the Bible? I am just wondering because I believe all translations are written about the same things? They are translations, not a promotion of false doctrine. When did the KJV only view take place? Why would it be considered more accurate than the NKJV and other translations?
In most cases, these so-called "left-out" bits are in the other versions, but in a different place.You might want to research it. Many versions leave out crucial God-breathed elements.
IN THE "NEW KJV," THERE ARE
22 omissions of "hell",
23 omissions of "blood",
44 omissions of "repent",
50 omissions of "heaven",
51 omissions of "God",
66 omissions of "Lord".
The term "JEHOVAH" is completely omitted.
A Deadly Translation - The "New" KJV
The pagan trinity is not a mystery. It is symbolic of a father, mother, and child.
You should remember that Adam wrote the first scriptures, so ideas in scripture
were not formed "late" in humanity. You might find them anywhere.
What and when you stop doing research is always up to you. I don't endorse my sources in any way. I provide them for your interest.
Is the KJV only view a false view of preaching or studying the Bible? I am just wondering because I believe all translations are written about the same things? They are translations, not a promotion of false doctrine. When did the KJV only view take place? Why would it be considered more accurate than the NKJV and other translations?
Adam wrote scripture?
"seems that he lived before people started using any written form of language"
That doesn't mean God didn't give him those skills. He had the other skills so why not?
Even if he didn't physically write it down he gave the account of the garden to whomever did write it down so in essence he did write part of it. It starts with God, then Adam, Noah and these are the generations of means its a passing of the torch. But at the end of the day who God used to write down his words is irrelevant after all God is the author and if its infallible which it has to be, ultimately God wrote it down."seems that he lived before people started using any written form of language"
That doesn't mean God didn't give him those skills. He had the other skills so why not?
What language did he write in?
Thanks. It was interesting. The Tanakh reads:
Adam wrote scripture?