"you see that a person is justified by works and not by faith alone." As James also says, he will show his faith by his works. Why? Because how can anyone see the faith we have in our hearts if we don't live it out? However, Scripture is clear, our "good works" do not justify us to God, only Christ does so, the sinless, spotless Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world.
No, James is not answering the question of "how can we know that another person is saved." He does not directly raise that question anywhere in the text, although he touches upon the idea tangentially.
But we can discuss James 2 in more detail later. I hope that at the end of it you will not attempt to throw the book of James in the trash, as did Martin Luther, the creator of Sola Fide.
We do not go about to establish our own righteousness.
Amen.
What I said was that Jesus makes it absolutely clear how high God's standard is. There is no ranking system for sin in the Gospel. He who offends in one offends in all, and the wages of sin is death. All sin is mortal.
16 If anyone sees his brother committing
a sin not leading to death, he shall ask, and God will give him life—to those who commit
sins that do not lead to death. There is sin that leads to death; I do not say that one should pray for that. 17 All wrongdoing is sin, but
there is sin that does not lead to death.
Exactly. And He is faithful to His promises, even when we are not. He will never leave us or forsake us.
Amen. But whether you and I will forsake Jesus, that question remains very much up in the air. Neither one of us is omniscient and knows what will happen tomorrow.
That's definitely a dichotomy of sin that the Catholic Church claims exists. Scripture is clear, all sin is "mortal."
No, Scripture does not teach that. I already provided you with a verse that directly disproves that.
Here is all the other explanation that you need:
Mortal and Venial Sin? | Catholic Answers
The most common Bible verse used against the very Catholic and very biblical doctrines concerning
mortal and venial sin is
James 2:10-11:
For whoever keeps the whole law but fails in one point has become guilty of all of it. For he who said, “Do not commit adultery,” said also, “Do not kill.”
The argument is made from this text that all sins are the same before God. Is this true?
Two Points in Response:
First, the context of James 2 reveals St. James to have been talking about showing partiality for the first nine verses leading up to verses ten and eleven. In verse one St. James says, “My brethren, show no partiality as you hold the faith of our Lord Jesus Christ.” St. James then goes on to say that if we show partiality, for example, toward the rich at the expense of the poor, we fail to keep what he calls “the royal law, according to the Scripture, ‘You shall love your neighbor as yourself’” (verse 8). He then says, in verse nine, “But if you show partiality, you commit sin, and are convicted by the law as transgressors.” This is his lead-in to talking about keeping the commandments.
The point here is we cannot pick and choose who we are going to love as the Lord commands and who we are not going to love. On Judgment Day, we cannot say, “But I loved over six billion people as I love myself, Lord! I only hated that one guy!” It is an all or nothing proposition. In the same way, we cannot say to God on Judgment Day, “But I kept the other nine commandments, Lord!”
The second point I would make here is if you read the rest of verse 11, St. James explains a little more precisely what he means.
For he who said, “Do not commit adultery,” said also, “Do not kill.” If you do not commit adultery but do kill, you have become a transgressor of the law.
He never says anything remotely related to “all sins are equal.” He does not say, “If you commit adultery, you are guilty of murder, lying, stealing, etc.” as if there is no difference between these sins. The gravity of each sin is not his point. He simply points out that if you break any of these laws, you have become a transgressor of the law. Again, I believe he is saying you cannot pick and choose which of God’s laws you will obey and those you will not. You must obey all of them.
I believe we went over these verses some time ago. How and why were the Gentiles "grafted in"? Because of faith, or because of their works?
Of course they were grafted in because of faith, just as they will be subsequently be cut off if they do not continue in faith. Either way, the verses refute the idea of "Once Saved Always Saved".
The "willful sin" is to reject Christ. He is the only sufficient sacrifice for sin, there is no other.
What do you think is meant by "trampling the Son of God underfoot" or "profaning the blood of the covenant"?
Exactly what the text states:
26 For if we go on sinning deliberately after receiving the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins, 27 but a fearful expectation of judgment, and a fury of fire that will consume the adversaries. 28 Anyone who has set aside the law of Moses dies without mercy on the evidence of two or three witnesses. 29 How much worse punishment, do you think, will be deserved by the one who has trampled underfoot the Son of God, and has profaned the blood of the covenant by which he was sanctified, and has outraged the Spirit of grace? 30 For we know him who said, “Vengeance is mine; I will repay.” And again, “The Lord will judge his people.” 31 It is a fearful thing to fall into the hands of the living God.
When a person deliberately commits rape, kills, commits adultery, etc. he rejects Jesus as the Lord his life, regardless of how much undying love for the Lord he professes otherwise.
And Hebrews 10 says absolutely nothing about the "willful sin" or "sinning deliberately" being only "the sin of rejecting Christ". The sins that are discussed in verses 26 to 31 are the same exact sins that are discussed in verses 1 to 25. The same type of sins that the Jews previously scarified bulls and goats for, and the same type of sins that Jesus offered himself for.
Now, I bet that someone will want to say "It is not I, but the sin within me that commits rape, kills, and commits adultery, just ask St. Paul teaches in Romans 7. I really did not want to rape, kill, and commit adultery, because 'I really love the Lord in my heart and want to do his will.'" That is not what St. Paul is saying in Romans 7, which you have to continue reading through Romans 8 to understand.
When we rightly divide the word of truth, we see there are no contradictions. Salvation is a gift, entirely unearned by us.
Amen.
You may not believe that, but many do. Or do you think Jesus was making it up when He said that many will say "Lord", "Lord", and bring Him their "many wonderful works" done in His name?
You mean this verse:
21 “Not everyone who says to me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven, but the one who does the will of my Father who is in heaven. 22 On that day many will say to me, ‘Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in your name, and cast out demons in your name, and do many mighty works in your name?’ 23 And then will I declare to them, ‘I never knew you; depart from me, you workers of lawlessness.’
That certainly sounds like a Christian cannot rape, murder, and commit adultery to me.
