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Soyeong

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Excellent, I'm glad that you agree with me now.

Is your goal to win an argument or to gain understanding? If it is to win an argument, then I have better things to do with my time, but if it is to gain understanding, then you will read more than just the first sentence and erroneously conclude that I agree with you without showing any understanding.
 
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jax5434

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In post #95, I linked to an article discussing how microchimerism offers a scientific rationale underlying Our Lady's assumption.

In post #99, Major admitted he skipped the article and went straight to dismissing the idea.

In post #107, he didn't deny having dismissed the idea without consideration.

Hopefully that clarifies it.

I read the article and can see how, if correct, it would support the assumption of Mary. But it seems to raise questions about the nature of Jesus. Protestants believe that Jesus had two separate and distinct natures. He was fully God and fully man not a mixture of the two. I am not sure what the catholic view is.
Protestants believe that Mary was the mother of the humanity of Jesus but that his divine nature has existed eternally as the 2nd part of the Trinity. That being said I think most protestants would assert that any remaining cells of the fetal Jesus would be remnants of the completely human body that was growing in Mary and not therefore subject to assumption.

God Bless
Jax
 
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thecolorsblend

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I read the article and can see how, if correct, it would support the assumption of Mary. But it seems to raise questions about the nature of Jesus. Protestants believe that Jesus had two separate and distinct natures. He was fully God and fully man not a mixture of the two. I am not sure what the catholic view is.
Protestants believe that Mary was the mother of the humanity of Jesus but that his divine nature has existed eternally as the 2nd part of the Trinity. That being said I think most protestants would assert that any remaining cells of the fetal Jesus would be remnants of the completely human body that was growing in Mary and not therefore subject to assumption.

God Bless
Jax
Yours sounds pretty much the same as my understanding of Our Lord's natures. So I think we're on the same page there.

If there's any merit to the idea of microchimerism (and people who are smarter than me seem to believe it) then we should be careful how we proceed since the Christological implications go pretty deep.

And so I'm not prepared to stake too much on microchimerism. But I do find it an intriguing possible support for the assumption and thought it worth mentioning.
 
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Major1

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So you reject Einstein's theory of relativity? That's not found in the scriptures either.

That remark is exactly what I meant when I said your sarcasm is never an answer.

Computers are not in the Bible but here we are.

Electicity is not in the Bible but you use it.

Try to be more responsive and less sarcastic and we may all learn something.
 
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Major1

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Good Day,

My post was an attempt to inter act with the silly assertion that the doctrine of Sola Scriptura was made up during the Reformation which is patently untrue historically.

Posted "There was never 'Sola Scripture' until people invented it! Oral preaching / Tradition was the norm."

I do not see where you got the understanding that I am a member of the roman church, I must of posted really poorly.

What you must understand is that you are holding the roman church members to a standard of truth they are foolish to maintain:

Cardinal Joseph Ratzinger : while commenting on the documents of Vatican II (article nine of Dei verbum), stated that “no one is seriously able to maintain that there is a proof in Scripture for every catholic doctrine.” See Joseph Ratzinger’s “The Transmission of Divine Revelation” in Herbert Vorgrimler, ed., Commentary on the Documents of Vatican II (New York: Herder and Herder, 1969), Vol. 3, p. 195.


They (their church) feel that they can teach out side the clear teaching of scripture, due to the authority their own church claim for themselves.

Did you read any of the quotes I posted??

In Him,

Bill

I must have been using the one eye left wearing sunglasses. Thanks for the correction.
 
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Major1

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In post #95, I linked to an article discussing how microchimerism offers a scientific rationale underlying Our Lady's assumption.

In post #99, Major admitted he skipped the article and went straight to dismissing the idea.

In post #107, he didn't deny having dismissed the idea without consideration.

Hopefully that clarifies it.

You are correct and Major will do the same thing again. Why would I as a Bible believer need to consider accepting the Assumption of Mary regardless of scientific efforts AS IT IS TOTALLY NON-BIBLICAL!

The process is only the RCC's way of trying to make Mary equal to Jesus as the co-redeemer.

Catholicism portrays Mary as a sinless divine being, who never sinned, never had relations with Joseph, never had any children except Jesus, and then was bodily taken directly into Heaven without experiencing physical death. NONE of these RCC doctrines are taught in the Word of God. NONE!!!!!

The Bible teaches that Mary was a sinner, just like you and me and all you have to do is read the Bible as it is told to us in Jeremiah 17:9; Romans 3:10 and Romans 3:23 among many, many others.

The Bible teaches that Mary was born with a sin-nature just as was you and me in Romans 5:12.

The Bible teaches that Mary died, because all sinners must die a physical death as seen in Hebrews 9:27.

The Bible NEVER, not even in the least manner, teaches for believers to magnify, nor recognize Mary in any special way as has and does the RCC.

Instead of trying to push a new scientific effort to promote Mary, I suggest that you do a history and Bibles reseach on the Babylonian QUEEN OF HEAVEN seen in Jeremiah 7:18.

All Catholics today, Roman and Russian Orthodox alike, worship Mary as the Queen of Heaven. One only has to do a web search under “Queen of Heaven” to prove that Catholics do worship the Queen of Heaven.
 
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faroukfarouk

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Yes, we must be born again by the Spirit. Yes, there will be false prophets, false teachings, and false preachers. We shall know them through God's word and the revelation through the Holy Spirit. God is a jealous God. So must worship Him only and do not fall down before image or other gods. God must be worship in Spirit and truth. We don't need any prophets or priests to have access to God. It's through Jesus Christ our Saviour. That's why I disagree with the Catholics' bowing down before the image of Mary or any saints. Mary and the saints are sinners just as we.
God is not a respecter of any man. He choose and calls whoever He wants to do
His works. God bless you and thanks for the scriptures you have quoted.
The Lord Jesus said in John chapter 3: "Ye must be born again". :)
 
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thecolorsblend

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Catholicism portrays Mary as a sinless
True.

Not true.

The Bible teaches that Mary was a sinner, just like you and me and all you have to do is read the Bible as it is told to us in Jeremiah 17:9
That does not address Our Lady, either directly or indirectly.

Romans 3:10
None righteous? Does that include Our Lord?

Romans 3:23
All have sinned? Does that include Our Lord?

Separately, how about infants? Does that include them? How about the mentally ill? What sins have they knowingly committed? I mean, if Roman 3:23 is speaking in absolute, literal terms that ALL have sinned...
 
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Soyeong

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Catholicism portrays Mary as a sinless divine being, who never sinned, never had relations with Joseph, never had any children except Jesus, and then was bodily taken directly into Heaven without experiencing physical death. NONE of these RCC doctrines are taught in the Word of God. NONE!!!!!

Indeed, there are many doctrines that you would never get just by reading the Bible over and over again that people only believe because someone told them.
 
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redleghunter

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And here we go again with the common misrepresentation of what Sola Scriptura means.

Sola Scriptura does not mean that there are no other authorities in the Christians life. Sola Scriptura does not mean that the Christian has nothing to learn from others who are in the faith that have gone before them. Sola Scriptura does not deny the role of the church in the life of the Christian. Sola Scriptura does not mean that Christians use a faulty translation (KJV) to define their faith. Sola Scriptura does not mean that if you read your Bible alone that you will have a perfect understanding of the faith without help from others. Sola Scriptura does not mean that every Christian is alone with God under a tree, that that Christian perfectly knows the truth. Sola Scriptura does not say that all the truth that can be known is in the Bible.

Sola Scriptura says that the Bible is the sole infallible rule of faith for matters of salvation and living righteously before the Holy God. Those who so often reject Sola Scriptura by their misrepresenting it leave out the very key words "sole" and "infallible" that must go together. And those who promote doctrines that are clearly against the truth of scripture, such as the Papacy, Marian dogmas, Purgatory, Indulgences, never are able to defend those claims from the proper exegesis of scripture, and promote that the Roman Catholic church preserved the scripture, ignore and twist scripture as well as history.
Indeed the above is a very good summary of the Reformed definition from the Westminster confession of Faith.

I would add SS and the WCF does not deny the Biblical teaching office. Probably something our Catholic friends may not know.

In fairness to our Catholic friends they do encounter the "bible and me only under the green tree" 'solo meo' posters often on these sites. I am glad you made the distinction as the OP omits some important facts.
 
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redleghunter

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They are not based in the truth of God at all.
Which started with early syncretism. I quote Cardinal Newman:

"We are told in various ways by Eusebius [Note 16], that Constantine, in order to recommend the new religion to the heathen, transferred into it the outward ornaments to which they had been accustomed in their own. It is not necessary to go into a subject which the diligence of Protestant writers has made familiar to most of us. The use of temples, and these dedicated to particular saints, and ornamented on occasions with branches of trees; incense, lamps, and candles; votive offerings on recovery from illness; holy water; asylums; holydays and seasons, use of calendars, processions, blessings on the fields; sacerdotal vestments, the tonsure, the ring in marriage, turning to the East, images at a later date, perhaps the ecclesiastical chant, and the Kyrie Eleison [Note 17], are all of pagan origin, and sanctified by their adoption into the Church. {374}

Greeks dedicate images to devils, and call them gods; but we to True God Incarnate, and to God's servants and friends, who drive away the troops of devils." [Note 18] Again, "As the holy Fathers overthrew the temples and shrines of the devils, and raised in their places shrines in the {377} names of Saints and we worship them, so also they overthrew the images of the devils, and in their stead raised images of Christ, and God's Mother, and the Saints. And under the Old Covenant, Israel neither raised temples in the name of men, nor was memory of man made a festival; for, as yet, man's nature was under a curse, and death was condemnation, and therefore was lamented, and a corpse was reckoned unclean and he who touched it; but now that the Godhead has been combined with our nature, as some life-giving and saving medicine, our nature has been glorified and is trans-elemented into incorruption.

Wherefore the death of Saints is made a feast, and temples are raised to them, and Images are painted ... (John Henry Newman [made a cardinal by Pope Leo III in 1879]; Application of the Third Note of a True Development—Assimilative Power, Chapter 8; Newman Reader - Development of Christian Doctrine - Chapter 8)
 
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redleghunter

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1 Corinthians 2:10-14
10 But God has revealed them to us through His Spirit. For the Spirit searches all things, yes, the deep things of God.
11 For what man knows the things of a man except the spirit of the man which is in him? Even so no one knows the things of God except the Spirit of God.
12 Now we have received, not the spirit of the world, but the Spirit who is from God, that we might know the things that have been freely given to us by God.
13 These things we also speak, not in words which man's wisdom teaches but which the Holy Spirit teaches, comparing spiritual things with spiritual.
14 But the natural man does not receive the things of the Spirit of God, for they are foolishness to him; nor can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned.
Verse 14 is a crucial fact.
 
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PeaceByJesus

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*Disclaimer: I am not a Theologian, and do not speak for the Catholic Church. I am merely a layman, here to evangelize, and expose the error of Sola Scriptura and open people’s mind’s to the truth, of the Catholic Faith.*
Which Catholic Faith? We have traditionalists who pick and and choose from Vatican 2 and other modern teaching based upon their judgment of what historical RC teaching says (including that Extra Ecclesiam nulla salus means former RCs as myself are presently lost), and basically require submission to all public papal teaching, but criticize or reject modern popes while telling us we need one.

And then we have modern RCs who calls us brethren, and like their pope, in word or deed sometimes manifest that they share a liberal interpretation of what Catholic teaching means.

Then you have variations in btwn, with all them engaging in varying degrees of interpretation of what Catholic teaching means, all of whom Rome counts and treats as members in life and in death (even with ecclesiastical funerals), thus manifesting her interpretation of Scripture and canon law.

And Scripturally, what one does and effects constitutes the evidence of what one truly believers. (Mt. 7:20; Ja. 2:18)
So Sola Scriptura, where shall I begin? I guess I’ll start with my own testimony. The first time I ever read a Bible, it was my mother’s King James Bible. In addition to trying to understand the archaic english, there were a number of things I was totally lost over,

I was once a lost (raised devout, later weekly mass-going) RC, and only after heartfelt repentance and faith in the risen Lord Jesus to save me on my account did I have an earnest ongoing desire to read Scripture and began to understand it, evangelical radio helping much in my hunger.
Apologies if that sounded irreverent,
Actually is is irrelevant, since SS does not mean all Scripture is easily understood, but that "those things which are necessary to be known, believed, and observed for salvation are so clearly propounded, and opened in some place of Scripture or other, that not only the learned, but the unlearned, in a due use of the ordinary means, may attain unto a sufficient understanding of them." (Westminster Confession, cp. 1)

And a Reformed site states,

Question 88 of the Westminster Shorter Catechism asks, “What are the outward means whereby Christ communicateth to us the benefits of redemption?” Answer:

The outward and ordinary means whereby Christ communicateth to us the benefits of redemption are his ordinances, especially the Word, sacraments and prayer; all of which are made effectual to the elect for salvation.

And,
What the church does when it gathers on the Lord’s Day is not incidental; it is vital for the salvation and sanctification of God’s people. The Word, baptism, the Lord’s Supper, and prayer are, after all, Christ’s ordinances.
but that’s kind of what I was thinking as I read Sacred Scriptures for the first time. I was totally confused! I had no idea what any of it meant!
And is seems evident that your idea of what SS means was based more on "Catholic Answers" type propaganda or fringe views than some research.
That’s one of the many key problems with Sola Scriptura, it’s not how the Bible works.
Since your premise of what SS means is false, then so is your argument.
The Bible is meant for people who already know the basics of the Faith taught through Sacred Tradition.
Wrong, for while it is true that correctly understanding the Scriptures overall requires one to be born from above by believing the Scriptural gospel, yet "Sacred Tradition" is not whatever Catholicism says it is, but must be subject to Scripture, which is the established substantive wholly inspired standard.
Case in point, let’s turn to the supposed “proof-text” cited by Protestants to promote Sola Scriptura:
“All scripture, inspired of God, is profitable to teach, to reprove, to correct, to instruct in justice, That the man of God may be perfect, furnished to every good work.” - 2 Timothy 3:16-17 DR (emphasis added)
Sacred Scripture is profitable for the “man of God” for someone who already knows the basics of the Faith. Where did this person get the basics of the Faith? it’s got be from Sacred Scripture, because, as St. Paul just said in 2 Timothy 3:16-17, Sacred Scripture is meant for someone who has already become a man of God!
Is "profitable to teach, to reprove, to correct, to instruct" refers to its instrumental use, while since "faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God," (Romans 10:17) then Scripture is how a man comes to be a man of God. Thus as said just before your quote

And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus. (2 Timothy 3:15)
Where did he get it? From Sacred Tradition via the Church,
And the NT church received OT Scriptures to which it appealed from the Jews, but which did not mean that the historical magisterial stewards of wholly inspired writings were essential for recognizing what was of God, nor what such meant. Remember this fundamental reality.
this where the person got the teaching to be a man of God and receive the profitabilities of Sacred Scripture.
Which is contradictory, for is one can become a new creature in Christ by believing the gospel of Scripture, as one could be by reading and believing a text such as Acts 10:36-43, then he already is found Scripture to be profitable.
After all, which of you Protestants would ever just hand a Bible to some random person on the street, tell them to just read it, and pray to the Holy Spirit, leave him alone completely, and never have any contact with him to help him out in anyway, and then expect him to just eventually figure out the Bible, support your ecclesial community, and show up at your congregation!?! No, Sola Scriptura is not how the Bible works!
Which again, it because that is not what SS means.
Objection 1: No Protestant believes that one can just whip through the Bible and just know the Faith! Nor does Sola Scriptura teach that Bible clearly states that everything [is] in it. Sola Scriptura simply states that it’s the infallible authority.
I Reply: Here’s the problem, if only the Bible is infallible,
That is a poor imitation of the style of Aquinas, and your description is still is not SS, but which is basically defined as meaning,

The whole counsel of God concerning all things necessary for His own glory, man's salvation, faith and life, is either expressly set down in Scripture, or by good and necessary consequence may be deduced from Scripture: unto which nothing at any time is to be added, whether by new revelations of the Spirit, or traditions of men.

The supreme judge by which all controversies of religion are to be determined, and all decrees of councils, opinions of ancient writers, doctrines of men, and private spirits, are to be examined, and in whose sentence we are to rest, can be no other but the Holy Spirit speaking in the Scripture. (Westminster Confession , cp. 1)


And again, while what is necessary may be deduced from Scripture, this does mean all have the same exegetical ability and exclude teachers, and Westminster also says:

Nevertheless, we acknowledge the inward illumination of the Spirit of God to be necessary for the saving understanding of such things as are revealed in the Word:[13] and that there are some circumstances concerning the worship of God, and government of the Church, common to human actions and societies, which are to be ordered by the light of nature, and Christian prudence, according to the general rules of the Word, which are always to be observed.[14]

There are even SS continuationists (who believe all spiritual gifts can still be in use, including the word of wisdom, etc.)
and nothing else is, how can one possibly interpret it. One memorize the Bible perfectly, verse for verse, word for word, that doesn’t make one infallible.
What kind of argument is that? SS does not believe interpreters of Scripture must possess some charism of infallibility, but that souls "may attain unto a sufficient understanding of them" by study.

Where do we see an infallible magisterium being essential in order to know and understand what is of God? Don't try to extrapolate it out of "guide thee into all Truth" because the novel and unScriptural premise of ensured perpetual magisterial infallibility is not there.
but even within the same denomination, will do, all-of-the-above, and will end-up coming to completely different understandings on the same verse in Scripture.
Which is also a problem in Catholicism, as while holding to a few core Truth, both Caths and evangelicals (leaving out liberal Prots since SS is the issue here) can variously interpret their respective doctrinal sources. Yet for years evangelicals have testified to being more unified in basic truths than the fruit of Catholicism.
Objection 2: 2 Timothy 3:16-17, clearly says that scripture is sufficient!
I Reply: Materially sufficient, not formally sufficient. The Catholic position is that Sacred Scripture is materially sufficient, that means that the Holy Bible does contain all that is necessary for Salvation, but it is not obvious. (formally sufficient)
Actually, SS does not hold that all that is necessary for the life of faith obvious, but it holds that "those things which are necessary to be known, believed, and observed for salvation" is either clearly propounded or by one may attain unto a sufficient understanding of them in a due use of the ordinary means. Which includes the church.

Westminster also says:

It belongs to synods and councils, ministerially to determine controversies of faith, and cases of conscience; to set down rules and directions for the better ordering of the public worship of God, and government of his Church; to receive complaints in cases of maladministration, and authoritatively to determine the same; which decrees and determinations, if consonant to the Word of God, are to be received with reverence and submission; not only for their agreement with the Word, but also for the power whereby they are made, as being an ordinance of God appointed thereunto in His Word.[4] (Chapter XXXI)
The Holy Bible contains all the teachings of the Catholic Church including; the Papacy, the Sacraments, Devotion to Mary, Purgatory ect. ect.
Manifestly Wrong and blasphemous! Only by your primary heresy, that of the novel and unScriptural premise of ensured perpetual magisterial infallibility, meaning that Scripture only consists of and means what Rome autocratically says it does.

For Rome has presumed to infallibly declare she is and will be perpetually infallible whenever she speaks in accordance with her infallibly defined (scope and subject-based) formula, which renders her declaration that she is infallible, to be infallible, as well as all else she accordingly declares.

Which is cultic, not Christian. The whole reason I planned this debate in the first place, is because I had started debate on Our Lady as the Living Ark of the New and Eternal Covenant, and the whole debate ultimately boiled down to, “No, no, no! You’re taking just taking all these Scripture verses and running wild with them!”
Verses? You cannot even find on prayer being made to anyone else in Heaven but God - except by pagans - despite the Holy Spirit inspiring the recording of over 200.
Well, how do you know that? Where do you get the authority to determine what the Scripture really says, and what is just someone’s wild fantasy? That’s what we’re debating here.
Indeed, and contrary to the Catholic premise that being the stewards of express Divine Revelation,and the inheritor of promises of God's presence and guidance means that such is the infallible interpreter of Divine Revelation, the church actually began in dissent from those who sat in the seat of Moses over Israel, (Mt. 23:2) who were the historical instruments and stewards of Scripture, "because that unto them were committed the oracles of God," (Rm. 3:2) to whom pertaineth" the adoption, and the glory, and the covenants, and the giving of the law, and the service of God, and the promises" (Rm. 9:4) of Divine guidance, presence and perpetuation as they believed, (Gn. 12:2,3; 17:4,7,8; Ex. 19:5; Lv. 10:11; Dt. 4:31; 17:8-13; Ps, 11:4,9; Is. 41:10, Ps. 89:33,34; Jer. 7:23)

And instead they followed an itinerant Preacher whom the magisterium rejected, and whom the Messiah reproved by Scripture as being supreme, (Mk. 7:2-16) and established His Truth claims upon scriptural substantiation in word and in power, as did the early church as it began upon this basis. (Mt. 22:23-45; Lk. 24:27,44; Jn. 5:36,39; Acts 2:14-35; 4:33; 5:12; 15:6-21;17:2,11; 18:28; 28:23; Rm. 15:19; 2Cor. 12:12, etc.)

And which is certainly not opposed to magisterial authority, but the authority of the NT church was under men of supreme Scriptural integrity "not walking in craftiness, nor handling the word of God deceitfully; but by manifestation of the truth commending ourselves to every man's conscience in the sight of God. (2 Co. 4:2) "in all things approving ourselves as the ministers of God..." (2 Co. 6:4)
Objection 3: There’s no way, those scripture passages refer to the Papacy, devotion to Mary, Purgatory, etc!

I Reply: That’s not what we’re debating here. Sola Scriptura is on trial here, not Sacred Tradition. The purpose of this debate is to show that Sacred Scripture functions with Sacred Tradition, and not Sola Scriptura. This debate is not about determining whether or not the various Catholic proof-texts, prove Catholic doctrines. Stay on topic!

Wrong again, you already argued for the necessity of Sacred Tradition as the alternative to (your strawman) SS, but the veracity of Sacred Tradition is based upon the novel and unScriptural premise of autocratic ensured perpetual magisterial infallibility.
Objection 4: These arguments are self-defeating, how do you know that the Catholic Church has the infallible, inerrant interpretation of Sacred Scripture!
I Reply: First of all, notice that this doesn’t solve the problem at all. If the Catholic Church doesn’t have the correct interpretation of Divine Revelation and the Gospel of Jesus Christ, well, then Christianity is finished!
Which is as manifestly absurd as arguing that if one differed with though to sat in the seat of Moses than he could not be in the faith. Scripture is the only wholly inspired transcendent preserved substantive authority, by which even the veracity of the apostles preaching was subject to.

Writing, not oral tradition, is God's manifest means of preservation, (Exodus 17:14; 34:1,27; Deuteronomy 10:4; 17:18; 27:3; 31:24; Joshua 1:8; 2 Chronicles 34:15,18-19; Ps. 19:7-11; 119; John 20:31; Acts 17:11; Revelation 1:1; 20:12, 15; Matthew 4:5-7; 22:29; Lk. 24:44,45)

As is abundantly evidenced that as written, Scripture became the transcendent supreme standard for obedience and testing and establishing truth claims as the wholly Divinely inspired and assured, Word of God.
It is as Blessed Cardinal John Henry Newman said, it’s either Catholicism or Atheism! If one rejects Catholicism and follows this rejection of Catholicism to it’s logical conclusion, one will become an Atheist.
Which is also manifestly absurd, as evidenced by the multitudes who have left Rome and found Christ, and and atheists who also became evangelicals.

You can argue that we hold to certain common Truths as expressed in the CF Statement of
faith, but that does not mean we must submit to all else Rome proffers.
Finally I turn to what Jesus taught, what is His message to us? For that, I turn to the writings of the early Christians, what did they believe Our Lord’s message was?
Which is a fundamental fallacy! Are these writings wholly inspired of God as Scripture is? No. Does even Rome affirm all that each believed? No.

Instead, what the (incomplete) writings of so-called "church fathers" reveal is not simply that of holding to basic Truths we also find to be Scriptural, and pious faith and morals, but a gradual accretion of traditions of men.

Which are revealed as such in the light of the only wholly inspired substantive record of what the NT church believed, in particular Acts onward, which helps us see how they understood the gospels.
I find that they believed quite a number of things: They believed in praying for the dead; they believed in having authority figures over their communities called “bishops;” they believed in worshipping Jesus in very special way, headed by a consecrated priest, and that when that priest spoke special words over the bread and wine on the altar, that bread and wine became the really became the body, blood, soul, and Divinity of Jesus Christ truly present under the guise of bread and wine! Thus, the early Christians believed everything the Catholic Church teaches, and thus the Catholic Church, is the One True Church established by Jesus Christ. (Albeit, is the question of the Orthodox Churches, and other Churches that accept Sacred Tradition, but that’s a whole other topic for another time.)
Rather than subjecting Scripture to the uninspired words of men, what Scripture reveals is that the NT church not a church which,


1. Was not based upon the premise of ensured perpetual magisterial infallibility of office as per Rome, which has presumed to infallibly declare that she is and will perpetually be infallible whenever she speaks in accordance with her infallibly defined (scope and subject-based) formula, which renders her declaration that she is infallible, to be infallible, as well as all else she accordingly declares.

2. Never promised or taught ensured perpetual magisterial infallibility was essential for preservation of truth, including writings to be discerned and established as Scripture, and for assurance of faith, and that historical descent as the stewards of Scripture means that such possessed ensured infallibility.

3. Never was a church that manifested the Lord's supper as being the central means of grace, around which all else revolved, it being “the source and summit of the Christian faith” in which “the work of our redemption is accomplished,” by which one received spiritual life in themselves by consuming human flesh, so that without which eating one cannot have eternal life (as per RC literalism, of Jn. 6:53,54). In contrast to believing the gospel by which one is regenerated, (Acts 10:43-47; 15:7-9; Eph. 1:13) and desiring the milk (1Pt. 2:2) and then the “strong meat” (Heb. 5:12-14) of the word of God, being “nourished” (1Tim. 4:6) by hearing the word of God and letting it dwell in them, (Col. 3:16) by which word (Scriptures) man is to live by, (Mt. 4:4) as Christ lived by the Father, (Jn. 6:57) doing His will being His “meat.” (Jn. 4:34) And with the Lord's supper, which is only manifestly described once in the life of the church, focusing on the church being the body of Christ in showing the Lord sacrificial death by that communal meal.

4
. Never had any pastors titled "priests" as they did not engage in any unique sacrificial function, that of turning bread into human flesh and dispensing it to the people, or even dispensing bread as their primary ordained function, versus preaching the word. (2Tim. 4:2)

5
. Never differentiated between bishops and elders, and with grand titles ("Most Reverend Eminence," “Very Reverend,” “Most Illustrious and Most Reverend Lord,” “His Eminence Cardinal,” “The Most Reverend the Archbishop,” etc.) or made themselves distinct by their ostentatious pompous garb. (Matthew 23:5-7) Or were all to be formally called “father” as that would require them to be spiritual fathers to all (Mt. 23:8-10 is a form of hyperbole, reproving the love of titles such as Catholicism examples, and “thinking of men above that which is written, and instead the Lord emphasizes the One Father of all who are born of the Spirit, whom He Himself worked to glorify).

6
. Never required clerical celibacy as the norm, (1Tim. 3:17) which presumes all such have that gift, (1Cor. 7:7) or otherwise manifested that celibacy was the norm among apostles and pastors, or had vowed to be so. (1Cor. 9:4; Titus 1:5,6)

7
. Never taught that Peter was the "rock" of Mt. 16:18 upon which the church is built, interpreting Mt. 16:18, rather than upon the rock of the faith confessed by Peter, thus Christ Himself. (For in contrast to Peter, that the LORD Jesus is the Rock (“petra”) or "stone" (“lithos,” and which denotes a large rock in Mk. 16:4) upon which the church is built is one of the most abundantly confirmed doctrines in the Bible (petra: Rm. 9:33; 1Cor. 10:4; 1Pet. 2:8; cf. Lk. 6:48; 1Cor. 3:11; lithos: Mat. 21:42; Mk.12:10-11; Lk. 20:17-18; Act. 4:11; Rm. 9:33; Eph. 2:20; cf. Dt. 32:4, Is. 28:16) including by Peter himself. (1Pt. 2:4-8) Rome's current catechism attempts to have Peter himself as the rock as well, but also affirms: “On the rock of this faith confessed by St Peter, Christ build his Church,” (pt. 1, sec. 2, cp. 2, para. 424) which understanding some of the so-called “church fathers” concur with.)

8
. Never taught or exampled that all the churches were to look to Peter as the bishop of Rome, as the first of a line of supreme heads reigning over all the churches, and having the last word in questions affecting the whole Church.

9
. Never recorded or taught any apostolic successors (like for James: Acts 12:1,2) after Judas who was to maintain the original 12: Rv. 21:14) or elected any apostolic successors by voting, versus casting lots (no politics). (Acts 1:15ff)

10
. Never recorded or manifested (not by conjecture) sprinkling or baptism without repentant personal faith, that being the stated requirement for baptism. (Acts 2:38; 8:36-38)

11
. Never preached a gospel of salvation which begins with becoming good enough inside (formally justified due to infused interior charity), via sprinkling (RC "baptism") in recognition of proxy faith, and which thus usually ends with becoming good enough again to enter Heaven via suffering in purgatory, commencing at death.

12
. Never supported or made laws that restricted personal reading of Scripture by laity (contrary to Chrysostom), if able and available, sometimes even outlawing it when it was.

13
. Never used the sword of men to deal with its theological dissenters.

14
. Never taught that the deity Muslims worship (who is not as an "unknown god") is the same as theirs.

15
. Never had a separate class of believers called “saints.”

16
. Never prayed to anyone in Heaven but the Lord, or were instructed to (i.e. "our Mother who art in Heaven") who were able to hear and respond to virtually unlimited prayers addressed to them (a uniquely Divine attribute in Scripture).

17
. Never recorded a women who never sinned, and was a perpetual virgin despite being married (contrary to the normal description of marriage, as in leaving and sexually cleaving) and who would be bodily assumed to Heaven and exalted (officially or with implicit sanction) as [/FONT]

• an almost almighty demigoddess to whom "Jesus owes His Precious Blood" to,

• whose [Mary] merits we are saved by,

• who "had to suffer, as He did, all the consequences of sin,"

• and was bodily assumed into Heaven, which is a fact (unsubstantiated in Scripture or even early Tradition) because the Roman church says it is, and "was elevated to a certain affinity with the Heavenly Father,"
• and whose power now "is all but unlimited,"

• for indeed she "seems to have the same power as God,"

• "surpassing in power all the angels and saints in Heaven,"

• so that "the Holy Spirit acts only by the Most Blessed Virgin, his Spouse."

• and that “sometimes salvation is quicker if we remember Mary's name then if we invoked the name of the Lord Jesus,"

• for indeed saints have "but one advocate," and that is Mary, who "alone art truly loving and solicitous for our salvation,"

• Moreover, "there is no grace which Mary cannot dispose of as her own, which is not given to her for this purpose,"

• and who has "authority over the angels and the blessed in heaven,"
• including "assigning to saints the thrones made vacant by the apostate angels,"

• whom the good angels "unceasingly call out to," greeting her "countless times each day with 'Hail, Mary,' while prostrating themselves before her, begging her as a favour to honour them with one of her requests,"

• and who (obviously) cannot "be honored to excess,"

• and who is (obviously) the glory of Catholic people, whose "honor and dignity surpass the whole of creation." Sources and more.​
I’m going to be busy throughout the whole day finishing my College assignment, so I won’t be here until the evening, if that. I ask my fellow-Catholics to engage in this debate for me, while I’m away. My activity will be very slow, as I’ll be busy with College work throughout most of the month.
So after all this it is a hit and run.

 
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Major1

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Indeed, there are many doctrines that you would never get just by reading the Bible over and over again that people only believe because someone told them.

You are absolutely correct.
 
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Which Catholic Faith? We have traditionalists who pick and and choose from Vatican 2 and other modern teaching based upon their judgment of what historical RC teaching says (including that Extra Ecclesiam nulla salus means former RCs as myself are presently lost), and basically require submission to all public papal teaching, but criticize or reject modern popes while telling us we need one.

And then we have modern RCs who calls us brethren, and like their pope, in word or deed sometimes manifest that they share a liberal interpretation of what Catholic teaching means.

Then you have variations in btwn, with all them engaging in varying degrees of interpretation of what Catholic teaching means, all of whom Rome counts and treats as members in life and in death (even with ecclesiastical funerals), thus manifesting her interpretation of Scripture and canon law.

And Scripturally, what one does and effects constitutes the evidence of what one truly believers. (Mt. 7:20; Ja. 2:18)


I was once a lost (raised devout, later weekly mass-going) RC, and only after heartfelt repentance and faith in the risen Lord Jesus to save me on my account did I have an earnest ongoing desire to read Scripture and began to understand it, evangelical radio helping much in my hunger.

Actually is is irrelevant, since SS does not mean all Scripture is easily understood, but that "those things which are necessary to be known, believed, and observed for salvation are so clearly propounded, and opened in some place of Scripture or other, that not only the learned, but the unlearned, in a due use of the ordinary means, may attain unto a sufficient understanding of them." (Westminster Confession, cp. 1)

And a Reformed site states,

Question 88 of the Westminster Shorter Catechism asks, “What are the outward means whereby Christ communicateth to us the benefits of redemption?” Answer:

The outward and ordinary means whereby Christ communicateth to us the benefits of redemption are his ordinances, especially the Word, sacraments and prayer; all of which are made effectual to the elect for salvation.

And,
What the church does when it gathers on the Lord’s Day is not incidental; it is vital for the salvation and sanctification of God’s people. The Word, baptism, the Lord’s Supper, and prayer are, after all, Christ’s ordinances.

And is seems evident that your idea of what SS means was based more on "Catholic Answers" type propaganda or fringe views than some research.

Since your premise of what SS means is false, then so is your argument.

Wrong, for while it is true that correctly understanding the Scriptures overall requires one to be born from above by believing the Scriptural gospel, yet "Sacred Tradition" is not whatever Catholicism says it is, but must be subject to Scripture, which is the established substantive wholly inspired standard.

Is "profitable to teach, to reprove, to correct, to instruct" refers to its instrumental use, while since "faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God," (Romans 10:17) then Scripture is how a man comes to be a man of God. Thus as said just before your quote

And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus. (2 Timothy 3:15)

And the NT church received OT Scriptures to which it appealed from the Jews, but which did not mean that the historical magisterial stewards of wholly inspired writings were essential for recognizing what was of God, nor what such meant. Remember this fundamental reality.

Which is contradictory, for is one can become a new creature in Christ by believing the gospel of Scripture, as one could be by reading and believing a text such as Acts 10:36-43, then he already is found Scripture to be profitable.

Which again, it because that is not what SS means.


That is a poor imitation of the style of Aquinas, and your description is still is not SS, but which is basically defined as meaning,

The whole counsel of God concerning all things necessary for His own glory, man's salvation, faith and life, is either expressly set down in Scripture, or by good and necessary consequence may be deduced from Scripture: unto which nothing at any time is to be added, whether by new revelations of the Spirit, or traditions of men.

The supreme judge by which all controversies of religion are to be determined, and all decrees of councils, opinions of ancient writers, doctrines of men, and private spirits, are to be examined, and in whose sentence we are to rest, can be no other but the Holy Spirit speaking in the Scripture. (Westminster Confession , cp. 1)


And again, while what is necessary may be deduced from Scripture, this does mean all have the same exegetical ability and exclude teachers, and Westminster also says:

Nevertheless, we acknowledge the inward illumination of the Spirit of God to be necessary for the saving understanding of such things as are revealed in the Word:[13] and that there are some circumstances concerning the worship of God, and government of the Church, common to human actions and societies, which are to be ordered by the light of nature, and Christian prudence, according to the general rules of the Word, which are always to be observed.[14]

There are even SS continuationists (who believe all spiritual gifts can still be in use, including the word of wisdom, etc.)

What kind of argument is that? SS does not believe interpreters of Scripture must possess some charism of infallibility, but that souls "may attain unto a sufficient understanding of them" by study.

Where do we see an infallible magisterium being essential in order to know and understand what is of God? Don't try to extrapolate it out of "guide thee into all Truth" because the novel and unScriptural premise of ensured perpetual magisterial infallibility is not there.

Which is also a problem in Catholicism, as while holding to a few core Truth, both Caths and evangelicals (leaving out liberal Prots since SS is the issue here) can variously interpret their respective doctrinal sources. Yet for years evangelicals have testified to being more unified in basic truths than the fruit of Catholicism.

Actually, SS does not hold that all that is necessary for the life of faith obvious, but it holds that "those things which are necessary to be known, believed, and observed for salvation" is either clearly propounded or by one may attain unto a sufficient understanding of them in a due use of the ordinary means. Which includes the church.

Westminster also says:

It belongs to synods and councils, ministerially to determine controversies of faith, and cases of conscience; to set down rules and directions for the better ordering of the public worship of God, and government of his Church; to receive complaints in cases of maladministration, and authoritatively to determine the same; which decrees and determinations, if consonant to the Word of God, are to be received with reverence and submission; not only for their agreement with the Word, but also for the power whereby they are made, as being an ordinance of God appointed thereunto in His Word.[4] (Chapter XXXI)

Manifestly Wrong and blasphemous! Only by your primary heresy, that of the novel and unScriptural premise of ensured perpetual magisterial infallibility, meaning that Scripture only consists of and means what Rome autocratically says it does.

For Rome has presumed to infallibly declare she is and will be perpetually infallible whenever she speaks in accordance with her infallibly defined (scope and subject-based) formula, which renders her declaration that she is infallible, to be infallible, as well as all else she accordingly declares.


Verses? You cannot even find on prayer being made to anyone else in Heaven but God - except by pagans - despite the Holy Spirit inspiring the recording of over 200.

Indeed, and contrary to the Catholic premise that being the stewards of express Divine Revelation,and the inheritor of promises of God's presence and guidance means that such is the infallible interpreter of Divine Revelation, the church actually began in dissent from those who sat in the seat of Moses over Israel, (Mt. 23:2) who were the historical instruments and stewards of Scripture, "because that unto them were committed the oracles of God," (Rm. 3:2) to whom pertaineth" the adoption, and the glory, and the covenants, and the giving of the law, and the service of God, and the promises" (Rm. 9:4) of Divine guidance, presence and perpetuation as they believed, (Gn. 12:2,3; 17:4,7,8; Ex. 19:5; Lv. 10:11; Dt. 4:31; 17:8-13; Ps, 11:4,9; Is. 41:10, Ps. 89:33,34; Jer. 7:23)

And instead they followed an itinerant Preacher whom the magisterium rejected, and whom the Messiah reproved by Scripture as being supreme, (Mk. 7:2-16) and established His Truth claims upon scriptural substantiation in word and in power, as did the early church as it began upon this basis. (Mt. 22:23-45; Lk. 24:27,44; Jn. 5:36,39; Acts 2:14-35; 4:33; 5:12; 15:6-21;17:2,11; 18:28; 28:23; Rm. 15:19; 2Cor. 12:12, etc.)

And which is certainly not opposed to magisterial authority, but the authority of the NT church was under men of supreme Scriptural integrity "not walking in craftiness, nor handling the word of God deceitfully; but by manifestation of the truth commending ourselves to every man's conscience in the sight of God. (2 Co. 4:2) "in all things approving ourselves as the ministers of God..." (2 Co. 6:4)


Wrong again, you already argued for the necessity of Sacred Tradition as the alternative to (your strawman) SS, but the veracity of Sacred Tradition is based upon the novel and unScriptural premise of autocratic ensured perpetual magisterial infallibility.

Which is as manifestly absurd as arguing that if one differed with though to sat in the seat of Moses than he could not be in the faith. Scripture is the only wholly inspired transcendent preserved substantive authority, by which even the veracity of the apostles preaching was subject to.

Writing, not oral tradition, is God's manifest means of preservation, (Exodus 17:14; 34:1,27; Deuteronomy 10:4; 17:18; 27:3; 31:24; Joshua 1:8; 2 Chronicles 34:15,18-19; Ps. 19:7-11; 119; John 20:31; Acts 17:11; Revelation 1:1; 20:12, 15; Matthew 4:5-7; 22:29; Lk. 24:44,45)

As is abundantly evidenced that as written, Scripture became the transcendent supreme standard for obedience and testing and establishing truth claims as the wholly Divinely inspired and assured, Word of God.

Which is also manifestly absurd, as evidenced by the multitudes who have left Rome and found Christ, and and atheists who also became evangelicals.

You can argue that we hold to certain common Truths as expressed in the CF Statement of
faith, but that does not mean we must submit to all else Rome proffers.

Which is a fundamental fallacy! Are these writings wholly inspired of God as Scripture is? No. Does even Rome affirm all that each believed? No.

Instead, what the (incomplete) writings of so-called "church fathers" reveal is not simply that of holding to basic Truths we also find to be Scriptural, and pious faith and morals, but a gradual accretion of traditions of men.

Which are revealed as such in the light of the only wholly inspired substantive record of what the NT church believed, in particular Acts onward, which helps us see how they understood the gospels.

Rather than subjecting Scripture to the uninspired words of men, what Scripture reveals is that the NT church not a church which,


1. Was not based upon the premise of ensured perpetual magisterial infallibility of office as per Rome, which has presumed to infallibly declare that she is and will perpetually be infallible whenever she speaks in accordance with her infallibly defined (scope and subject-based) formula, which renders her declaration that she is infallible, to be infallible, as well as all else she accordingly declares.

2. Never promised or taught ensured perpetual magisterial infallibility was essential for preservation of truth, including writings to be discerned and established as Scripture, and for assurance of faith, and that historical descent as the stewards of Scripture means that such possessed ensured infallibility.

3. Never was a church that manifested the Lord's supper as being the central means of grace, around which all else revolved, it being “the source and summit of the Christian faith” in which “the work of our redemption is accomplished,” by which one received spiritual life in themselves by consuming human flesh, so that without which eating one cannot have eternal life (as per RC literalism, of Jn. 6:53,54). In contrast to believing the gospel by which one is regenerated, (Acts 10:43-47; 15:7-9; Eph. 1:13) and desiring the milk (1Pt. 2:2) and then the “strong meat” (Heb. 5:12-14) of the word of God, being “nourished” (1Tim. 4:6) by hearing the word of God and letting it dwell in them, (Col. 3:16) by which word (Scriptures) man is to live by, (Mt. 4:4) as Christ lived by the Father, (Jn. 6:57) doing His will being His “meat.” (Jn. 4:34) And with the Lord's supper, which is only manifestly described once in the life of the church, focusing on the church being the body of Christ in showing the Lord sacrificial death by that communal meal.

4
. Never had any pastors titled "priests" as they did not engage in any unique sacrificial function, that of turning bread into human flesh and dispensing it to the people, or even dispensing bread as their primary ordained function, versus preaching the word. (2Tim. 4:2)

5
. Never differentiated between bishops and elders, and with grand titles ("Most Reverend Eminence," “Very Reverend,” “Most Illustrious and Most Reverend Lord,” “His Eminence Cardinal,” “The Most Reverend the Archbishop,” etc.) or made themselves distinct by their ostentatious pompous garb. (Matthew 23:5-7) Or were all to be formally called “father” as that would require them to be spiritual fathers to all (Mt. 23:8-10 is a form of hyperbole, reproving the love of titles such as Catholicism examples, and “thinking of men above that which is written, and instead the Lord emphasizes the One Father of all who are born of the Spirit, whom He Himself worked to glorify).

6
. Never required clerical celibacy as the norm, (1Tim. 3:17) which presumes all such have that gift, (1Cor. 7:7) or otherwise manifested that celibacy was the norm among apostles and pastors, or had vowed to be so. (1Cor. 9:4; Titus 1:5,6)

7
. Never taught that Peter was the "rock" of Mt. 16:18 upon which the church is built, interpreting Mt. 16:18, rather than upon the rock of the faith confessed by Peter, thus Christ Himself. (For in contrast to Peter, that the LORD Jesus is the Rock (“petra”) or "stone" (“lithos,” and which denotes a large rock in Mk. 16:4) upon which the church is built is one of the most abundantly confirmed doctrines in the Bible (petra: Rm. 9:33; 1Cor. 10:4; 1Pet. 2:8; cf. Lk. 6:48; 1Cor. 3:11; lithos: Mat. 21:42; Mk.12:10-11; Lk. 20:17-18; Act. 4:11; Rm. 9:33; Eph. 2:20; cf. Dt. 32:4, Is. 28:16) including by Peter himself. (1Pt. 2:4-8) Rome's current catechism attempts to have Peter himself as the rock as well, but also affirms: “On the rock of this faith confessed by St Peter, Christ build his Church,” (pt. 1, sec. 2, cp. 2, para. 424) which understanding some of the so-called “church fathers” concur with.)

8
. Never taught or exampled that all the churches were to look to Peter as the bishop of Rome, as the first of a line of supreme heads reigning over all the churches, and having the last word in questions affecting the whole Church.

9
. Never recorded or taught any apostolic successors (like for James: Acts 12:1,2) after Judas who was to maintain the original 12: Rv. 21:14) or elected any apostolic successors by voting, versus casting lots (no politics). (Acts 1:15ff)

10
. Never recorded or manifested (not by conjecture) sprinkling or baptism without repentant personal faith, that being the stated requirement for baptism. (Acts 2:38; 8:36-38)

11
. Never preached a gospel of salvation which begins with becoming good enough inside (formally justified due to infused interior charity), via sprinkling (RC "baptism") in recognition of proxy faith, and which thus usually ends with becoming good enough again to enter Heaven via suffering in purgatory, commencing at death.

12
. Never supported or made laws that restricted personal reading of Scripture by laity (contrary to Chrysostom), if able and available, sometimes even outlawing it when it was.

13
. Never used the sword of men to deal with its theological dissenters.

14
. Never taught that the deity Muslims worship (who is not as an "unknown god") is the same as theirs.

15
. Never had a separate class of believers called “saints.”

16
. Never prayed to anyone in Heaven but the Lord, or were instructed to (i.e. "our Mother who art in Heaven") who were able to hear and respond to virtually unlimited prayers addressed to them (a uniquely Divine attribute in Scripture).

17
. Never recorded a women who never sinned, and was a perpetual virgin despite being married (contrary to the normal description of marriage, as in leaving and sexually cleaving) and who would be bodily assumed to Heaven and exalted (officially or with implicit sanction) as [/FONT]

• an almost almighty demigoddess to whom "Jesus owes His Precious Blood" to,

• whose [Mary] merits we are saved by,

• who "had to suffer, as He did, all the consequences of sin,"

• and was bodily assumed into Heaven, which is a fact (unsubstantiated in Scripture or even early Tradition) because the Roman church says it is, and "was elevated to a certain affinity with the Heavenly Father,"
• and whose power now "is all but unlimited,"

• for indeed she "seems to have the same power as God,"

• "surpassing in power all the angels and saints in Heaven,"

• so that "the Holy Spirit acts only by the Most Blessed Virgin, his Spouse."

• and that “sometimes salvation is quicker if we remember Mary's name then if we invoked the name of the Lord Jesus,"

• for indeed saints have "but one advocate," and that is Mary, who "alone art truly loving and solicitous for our salvation,"

• Moreover, "there is no grace which Mary cannot dispose of as her own, which is not given to her for this purpose,"

• and who has "authority over the angels and the blessed in heaven,"
• including "assigning to saints the thrones made vacant by the apostate angels,"

• whom the good angels "unceasingly call out to," greeting her "countless times each day with 'Hail, Mary,' while prostrating themselves before her, begging her as a favour to honour them with one of her requests,"

• and who (obviously) cannot "be honored to excess,"

• and who is (obviously) the glory of Catholic people, whose "honor and dignity surpass the whole of creation." Sources and more.​

So after all this it is a hit and run.

When anyone posts so much information at one time, they are saying.........
"here, I am going to hit you over the head with so much stuff that you can not respond so then I must be right".

If you would like to shorten your comment so we could assimilate it, I would be glad to respond to you.
 
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Major1

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True.

Not true.

That does not address Our Lady, either directly or indirectly.

None righteous? Does that include Our Lord?

All have sinned? Does that include Our Lord?

Separately, how about infants? Does that include them? How about the mentally ill? What sins have they knowingly committed? I mean, if Roman 3:23 is speaking in absolute, literal terms that ALL have sinned...
True.

Not true.

That does not address Our Lady, either directly or indirectly.

None righteous? Does that include Our Lord?

All have sinned? Does that include Our Lord?

Separately, how about infants? Does that include them? How about the mentally ill? What sins have they knowingly committed? I mean, if Roman 3:23 is speaking in absolute, literal terms that ALL have sinned...

I said..............
"Catholicism portrays Mary as sinless".

You said........
"True."

The Bible says..........
Romans 3:23,
"ALL have sinned and come short of the approval of God".

Ecclesiastes 7:20 ............
"For there is not a just man upon earth, that doeth good, and sinneth not."

So we see that the choice is and always has been, do you believe the Word of God or the words of men?

I then said...........
"The RCC teaches that Mary is divine".

You replied...........
"Not True."

The Catholic church says....................
According to Roman Catholicism, Mary is "the all-holy ever-virgin Mother of God" (Catechism of the Catholic Church, hereafter referred to as "CCC" 721), the "Queen over all things" (CCC 966), our "Advocate, Helper, Benefactress, and Mediatrix" (CCC 969), who is "full of grace" (CCC 722), the "Mother of God and our mother" (CCC 2677), the "new Eve" (CCC 726), and the "seat of wisdom" (CCC 721). She had no original sin (CCC 508), and never committed sin (CCC 493). She is second only to her Son" (Vatican II, Dogmatic Constitution on the Church, par. 66) and sits "on the right hand of the majesty on high" (Pope Pius X, Ad Diem Illum Laetissimum, 14). In fact, "no man goeth to Christ but by His Mother" (Pope Leo 13th, Octobri Mense). It was Mary who "crushed the poisonous head of the most cruel serpent and brought salvation to the world" (Pope Pius IX, Ineffabilis Deus). It is she who "delivers our souls from death" (CCC 966), and "continues to bring us the gifts of eternal salvation" (CCC 969). "Mary, by her spiritual entering into the sacrifice of her divine son for men, made atonement for the sins of man," (Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma4, Ott, page 213). Therefore, we can "entrust all our cares and petitions to her" (CCC 2677), "give ourselves over to her now" (CCC 2677).

If that does not teach "Divinity" then we need to redefine the meaning of the word.

Then you said................
None righteous? Does that include Our Lord?

All have sinned? Does that include Our Lord?

Separately, how about infants? Does that include them? How about the mentally ill? What sins have they knowingly committed? I mean, if Roman 3:23 is speaking in absolute, literal terms that ALL have sinned.

Your history is one of sarcasm and and I really do hope that is what you are being here by your questions.

If not and you are serious, than I shall try to say what is needed to be said with all respect that is due to you.

If you felt the need to ask a question like that, then you are in need of a lot of study, prayer and self introspection. The fact that you would even consider the question tells ALL OF US that you really do not have any Bible understanding at all and everything that you are saying to us is meaningless Theologically speaking.

I encourage you to spend less time on the internet and more time in the study of God's Word and then your comments might carry more weight during a discussion. Because of now, they carry none whatsoever.

However, I will answer your questions.

NO!....."Righteous" means to be sinless/perfect when tempted.

Jesus was God in the flesh and therefore when He was tempted He remained righteous.

NO! .....Jesus as the God-man had no ability to sin because He did not have a sin nature. That my friend is why the virgin birth is so important to grasp.

As for infants, mentally ill and so forth that you are concerned about, I would encourage you to do the homework under the heading of "Predestination" and you will find the answer.
 
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Phil 1:21

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Which Catholic Faith? We have traditionalists who pick and and choose from Vatican 2 and other modern teaching based upon their judgment of what historical RC teaching says (including that Extra Ecclesiam nulla salus means former RCs as myself are presently lost), and basically require submission to all public papal teaching, but criticize or reject modern popes while telling us we need one.

And then we have modern RCs who calls us brethren, and like their pope, in word or deed sometimes manifest that they share a liberal interpretation of what Catholic teaching means.

Then you have variations in btwn, with all them engaging in varying degrees of interpretation of what Catholic teaching means, all of whom Rome counts and treats as members in life and in death (even with ecclesiastical funerals), thus manifesting her interpretation of Scripture and canon law.

And Scripturally, what one does and effects constitutes the evidence of what one truly believers. (Mt. 7:20; Ja. 2:18)


I was once a lost (raised devout, later weekly mass-going) RC, and only after heartfelt repentance and faith in the risen Lord Jesus to save me on my account did I have an earnest ongoing desire to read Scripture and began to understand it, evangelical radio helping much in my hunger.

Actually is is irrelevant, since SS does not mean all Scripture is easily understood, but that "those things which are necessary to be known, believed, and observed for salvation are so clearly propounded, and opened in some place of Scripture or other, that not only the learned, but the unlearned, in a due use of the ordinary means, may attain unto a sufficient understanding of them." (Westminster Confession, cp. 1)

And a Reformed site states,

Question 88 of the Westminster Shorter Catechism asks, “What are the outward means whereby Christ communicateth to us the benefits of redemption?” Answer:

The outward and ordinary means whereby Christ communicateth to us the benefits of redemption are his ordinances, especially the Word, sacraments and prayer; all of which are made effectual to the elect for salvation.

And,
What the church does when it gathers on the Lord’s Day is not incidental; it is vital for the salvation and sanctification of God’s people. The Word, baptism, the Lord’s Supper, and prayer are, after all, Christ’s ordinances.

And is seems evident that your idea of what SS means was based more on "Catholic Answers" type propaganda or fringe views than some research.

Since your premise of what SS means is false, then so is your argument.

Wrong, for while it is true that correctly understanding the Scriptures overall requires one to be born from above by believing the Scriptural gospel, yet "Sacred Tradition" is not whatever Catholicism says it is, but must be subject to Scripture, which is the established substantive wholly inspired standard.

Is "profitable to teach, to reprove, to correct, to instruct" refers to its instrumental use, while since "faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God," (Romans 10:17) then Scripture is how a man comes to be a man of God. Thus as said just before your quote

And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus. (2 Timothy 3:15)

And the NT church received OT Scriptures to which it appealed from the Jews, but which did not mean that the historical magisterial stewards of wholly inspired writings were essential for recognizing what was of God, nor what such meant. Remember this fundamental reality.

Which is contradictory, for is one can become a new creature in Christ by believing the gospel of Scripture, as one could be by reading and believing a text such as Acts 10:36-43, then he already is found Scripture to be profitable.

Which again, it because that is not what SS means.


That is a poor imitation of the style of Aquinas, and your description is still is not SS, but which is basically defined as meaning,

The whole counsel of God concerning all things necessary for His own glory, man's salvation, faith and life, is either expressly set down in Scripture, or by good and necessary consequence may be deduced from Scripture: unto which nothing at any time is to be added, whether by new revelations of the Spirit, or traditions of men.

The supreme judge by which all controversies of religion are to be determined, and all decrees of councils, opinions of ancient writers, doctrines of men, and private spirits, are to be examined, and in whose sentence we are to rest, can be no other but the Holy Spirit speaking in the Scripture. (Westminster Confession , cp. 1)


And again, while what is necessary may be deduced from Scripture, this does mean all have the same exegetical ability and exclude teachers, and Westminster also says:

Nevertheless, we acknowledge the inward illumination of the Spirit of God to be necessary for the saving understanding of such things as are revealed in the Word:[13] and that there are some circumstances concerning the worship of God, and government of the Church, common to human actions and societies, which are to be ordered by the light of nature, and Christian prudence, according to the general rules of the Word, which are always to be observed.[14]

There are even SS continuationists (who believe all spiritual gifts can still be in use, including the word of wisdom, etc.)

What kind of argument is that? SS does not believe interpreters of Scripture must possess some charism of infallibility, but that souls "may attain unto a sufficient understanding of them" by study.

Where do we see an infallible magisterium being essential in order to know and understand what is of God? Don't try to extrapolate it out of "guide thee into all Truth" because the novel and unScriptural premise of ensured perpetual magisterial infallibility is not there.

Which is also a problem in Catholicism, as while holding to a few core Truth, both Caths and evangelicals (leaving out liberal Prots since SS is the issue here) can variously interpret their respective doctrinal sources. Yet for years evangelicals have testified to being more unified in basic truths than the fruit of Catholicism.

Actually, SS does not hold that all that is necessary for the life of faith obvious, but it holds that "those things which are necessary to be known, believed, and observed for salvation" is either clearly propounded or by one may attain unto a sufficient understanding of them in a due use of the ordinary means. Which includes the church.

Westminster also says:

It belongs to synods and councils, ministerially to determine controversies of faith, and cases of conscience; to set down rules and directions for the better ordering of the public worship of God, and government of his Church; to receive complaints in cases of maladministration, and authoritatively to determine the same; which decrees and determinations, if consonant to the Word of God, are to be received with reverence and submission; not only for their agreement with the Word, but also for the power whereby they are made, as being an ordinance of God appointed thereunto in His Word.[4] (Chapter XXXI)

Manifestly Wrong and blasphemous! Only by your primary heresy, that of the novel and unScriptural premise of ensured perpetual magisterial infallibility, meaning that Scripture only consists of and means what Rome autocratically says it does.

For Rome has presumed to infallibly declare she is and will be perpetually infallible whenever she speaks in accordance with her infallibly defined (scope and subject-based) formula, which renders her declaration that she is infallible, to be infallible, as well as all else she accordingly declares.


Verses? You cannot even find on prayer being made to anyone else in Heaven but God - except by pagans - despite the Holy Spirit inspiring the recording of over 200.

Indeed, and contrary to the Catholic premise that being the stewards of express Divine Revelation,and the inheritor of promises of God's presence and guidance means that such is the infallible interpreter of Divine Revelation, the church actually began in dissent from those who sat in the seat of Moses over Israel, (Mt. 23:2) who were the historical instruments and stewards of Scripture, "because that unto them were committed the oracles of God," (Rm. 3:2) to whom pertaineth" the adoption, and the glory, and the covenants, and the giving of the law, and the service of God, and the promises" (Rm. 9:4) of Divine guidance, presence and perpetuation as they believed, (Gn. 12:2,3; 17:4,7,8; Ex. 19:5; Lv. 10:11; Dt. 4:31; 17:8-13; Ps, 11:4,9; Is. 41:10, Ps. 89:33,34; Jer. 7:23)

And instead they followed an itinerant Preacher whom the magisterium rejected, and whom the Messiah reproved by Scripture as being supreme, (Mk. 7:2-16) and established His Truth claims upon scriptural substantiation in word and in power, as did the early church as it began upon this basis. (Mt. 22:23-45; Lk. 24:27,44; Jn. 5:36,39; Acts 2:14-35; 4:33; 5:12; 15:6-21;17:2,11; 18:28; 28:23; Rm. 15:19; 2Cor. 12:12, etc.)

And which is certainly not opposed to magisterial authority, but the authority of the NT church was under men of supreme Scriptural integrity "not walking in craftiness, nor handling the word of God deceitfully; but by manifestation of the truth commending ourselves to every man's conscience in the sight of God. (2 Co. 4:2) "in all things approving ourselves as the ministers of God..." (2 Co. 6:4)


Wrong again, you already argued for the necessity of Sacred Tradition as the alternative to (your strawman) SS, but the veracity of Sacred Tradition is based upon the novel and unScriptural premise of autocratic ensured perpetual magisterial infallibility.

Which is as manifestly absurd as arguing that if one differed with though to sat in the seat of Moses than he could not be in the faith. Scripture is the only wholly inspired transcendent preserved substantive authority, by which even the veracity of the apostles preaching was subject to.

Writing, not oral tradition, is God's manifest means of preservation, (Exodus 17:14; 34:1,27; Deuteronomy 10:4; 17:18; 27:3; 31:24; Joshua 1:8; 2 Chronicles 34:15,18-19; Ps. 19:7-11; 119; John 20:31; Acts 17:11; Revelation 1:1; 20:12, 15; Matthew 4:5-7; 22:29; Lk. 24:44,45)

As is abundantly evidenced that as written, Scripture became the transcendent supreme standard for obedience and testing and establishing truth claims as the wholly Divinely inspired and assured, Word of God.

Which is also manifestly absurd, as evidenced by the multitudes who have left Rome and found Christ, and and atheists who also became evangelicals.

You can argue that we hold to certain common Truths as expressed in the CF Statement of
faith, but that does not mean we must submit to all else Rome proffers.

Which is a fundamental fallacy! Are these writings wholly inspired of God as Scripture is? No. Does even Rome affirm all that each believed? No.

Instead, what the (incomplete) writings of so-called "church fathers" reveal is not simply that of holding to basic Truths we also find to be Scriptural, and pious faith and morals, but a gradual accretion of traditions of men.

Which are revealed as such in the light of the only wholly inspired substantive record of what the NT church believed, in particular Acts onward, which helps us see how they understood the gospels.

Rather than subjecting Scripture to the uninspired words of men, what Scripture reveals is that the NT church not a church which,


1. Was not based upon the premise of ensured perpetual magisterial infallibility of office as per Rome, which has presumed to infallibly declare that she is and will perpetually be infallible whenever she speaks in accordance with her infallibly defined (scope and subject-based) formula, which renders her declaration that she is infallible, to be infallible, as well as all else she accordingly declares.

2. Never promised or taught ensured perpetual magisterial infallibility was essential for preservation of truth, including writings to be discerned and established as Scripture, and for assurance of faith, and that historical descent as the stewards of Scripture means that such possessed ensured infallibility.

3. Never was a church that manifested the Lord's supper as being the central means of grace, around which all else revolved, it being “the source and summit of the Christian faith” in which “the work of our redemption is accomplished,” by which one received spiritual life in themselves by consuming human flesh, so that without which eating one cannot have eternal life (as per RC literalism, of Jn. 6:53,54). In contrast to believing the gospel by which one is regenerated, (Acts 10:43-47; 15:7-9; Eph. 1:13) and desiring the milk (1Pt. 2:2) and then the “strong meat” (Heb. 5:12-14) of the word of God, being “nourished” (1Tim. 4:6) by hearing the word of God and letting it dwell in them, (Col. 3:16) by which word (Scriptures) man is to live by, (Mt. 4:4) as Christ lived by the Father, (Jn. 6:57) doing His will being His “meat.” (Jn. 4:34) And with the Lord's supper, which is only manifestly described once in the life of the church, focusing on the church being the body of Christ in showing the Lord sacrificial death by that communal meal.

4
. Never had any pastors titled "priests" as they did not engage in any unique sacrificial function, that of turning bread into human flesh and dispensing it to the people, or even dispensing bread as their primary ordained function, versus preaching the word. (2Tim. 4:2)

5
. Never differentiated between bishops and elders, and with grand titles ("Most Reverend Eminence," “Very Reverend,” “Most Illustrious and Most Reverend Lord,” “His Eminence Cardinal,” “The Most Reverend the Archbishop,” etc.) or made themselves distinct by their ostentatious pompous garb. (Matthew 23:5-7) Or were all to be formally called “father” as that would require them to be spiritual fathers to all (Mt. 23:8-10 is a form of hyperbole, reproving the love of titles such as Catholicism examples, and “thinking of men above that which is written, and instead the Lord emphasizes the One Father of all who are born of the Spirit, whom He Himself worked to glorify).

6
. Never required clerical celibacy as the norm, (1Tim. 3:17) which presumes all such have that gift, (1Cor. 7:7) or otherwise manifested that celibacy was the norm among apostles and pastors, or had vowed to be so. (1Cor. 9:4; Titus 1:5,6)

7
. Never taught that Peter was the "rock" of Mt. 16:18 upon which the church is built, interpreting Mt. 16:18, rather than upon the rock of the faith confessed by Peter, thus Christ Himself. (For in contrast to Peter, that the LORD Jesus is the Rock (“petra”) or "stone" (“lithos,” and which denotes a large rock in Mk. 16:4) upon which the church is built is one of the most abundantly confirmed doctrines in the Bible (petra: Rm. 9:33; 1Cor. 10:4; 1Pet. 2:8; cf. Lk. 6:48; 1Cor. 3:11; lithos: Mat. 21:42; Mk.12:10-11; Lk. 20:17-18; Act. 4:11; Rm. 9:33; Eph. 2:20; cf. Dt. 32:4, Is. 28:16) including by Peter himself. (1Pt. 2:4-8) Rome's current catechism attempts to have Peter himself as the rock as well, but also affirms: “On the rock of this faith confessed by St Peter, Christ build his Church,” (pt. 1, sec. 2, cp. 2, para. 424) which understanding some of the so-called “church fathers” concur with.)

8
. Never taught or exampled that all the churches were to look to Peter as the bishop of Rome, as the first of a line of supreme heads reigning over all the churches, and having the last word in questions affecting the whole Church.

9
. Never recorded or taught any apostolic successors (like for James: Acts 12:1,2) after Judas who was to maintain the original 12: Rv. 21:14) or elected any apostolic successors by voting, versus casting lots (no politics). (Acts 1:15ff)

10
. Never recorded or manifested (not by conjecture) sprinkling or baptism without repentant personal faith, that being the stated requirement for baptism. (Acts 2:38; 8:36-38)

11
. Never preached a gospel of salvation which begins with becoming good enough inside (formally justified due to infused interior charity), via sprinkling (RC "baptism") in recognition of proxy faith, and which thus usually ends with becoming good enough again to enter Heaven via suffering in purgatory, commencing at death.

12
. Never supported or made laws that restricted personal reading of Scripture by laity (contrary to Chrysostom), if able and available, sometimes even outlawing it when it was.

13
. Never used the sword of men to deal with its theological dissenters.

14
. Never taught that the deity Muslims worship (who is not as an "unknown god") is the same as theirs.

15
. Never had a separate class of believers called “saints.”

16
. Never prayed to anyone in Heaven but the Lord, or were instructed to (i.e. "our Mother who art in Heaven") who were able to hear and respond to virtually unlimited prayers addressed to them (a uniquely Divine attribute in Scripture).

17
. Never recorded a women who never sinned, and was a perpetual virgin despite being married (contrary to the normal description of marriage, as in leaving and sexually cleaving) and who would be bodily assumed to Heaven and exalted (officially or with implicit sanction) as [/FONT]

• an almost almighty demigoddess to whom "Jesus owes His Precious Blood" to,

• whose [Mary] merits we are saved by,

• who "had to suffer, as He did, all the consequences of sin,"

• and was bodily assumed into Heaven, which is a fact (unsubstantiated in Scripture or even early Tradition) because the Roman church says it is, and "was elevated to a certain affinity with the Heavenly Father,"
• and whose power now "is all but unlimited,"

• for indeed she "seems to have the same power as God,"

• "surpassing in power all the angels and saints in Heaven,"

• so that "the Holy Spirit acts only by the Most Blessed Virgin, his Spouse."

• and that “sometimes salvation is quicker if we remember Mary's name then if we invoked the name of the Lord Jesus,"

• for indeed saints have "but one advocate," and that is Mary, who "alone art truly loving and solicitous for our salvation,"

• Moreover, "there is no grace which Mary cannot dispose of as her own, which is not given to her for this purpose,"

• and who has "authority over the angels and the blessed in heaven,"
• including "assigning to saints the thrones made vacant by the apostate angels,"

• whom the good angels "unceasingly call out to," greeting her "countless times each day with 'Hail, Mary,' while prostrating themselves before her, begging her as a favour to honour them with one of her requests,"

• and who (obviously) cannot "be honored to excess,"

• and who is (obviously) the glory of Catholic people, whose "honor and dignity surpass the whole of creation." Sources and more.​

So after all this it is a hit and run.

That is probably the best, most comprehensive and well referenced synopsis of the differences between Biblical truth and Roman Catholicism I have seen on this site yet. Thank you for taking the time to post it.
 
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Darren Court

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Oh come on........ You think this represents the protestant arguments? No wonder you're a confused Catholic!

First, let's deal head on with the fact that Catholics ignore scripture in order to apply "sola ecclesia" with a twist of misunderstanding of sola scripture thrown in.

The bible makes this absolutely clear and plain....

"For the word of God is alive and active. Sharper than any double-edged sword, it penetrates even to dividing soul and spirit, joints and marrow; it judges the thoughts and attitudes of the heart."

...hmm there's a verse Catholics don't like to use....with those horrible little words "alive and active".

I'm yet to find a Catholic who can explain why "apostolic succession" or church authority is necessary when God Himself tells us His word is "alive and active"? Moreover, just to make sure we didn't get this wrong, God says ""This is the covenant I will make with them after that time, says the Lord. I will put my laws in their hearts, and I will write them on their minds."

Now if you want to be pedantic about "sola scripture" meaning that scripture is the sole infallible rule of faith and practice then you misunderstand protestantism either through ignorance or deceit. Irrespective such a literal application actually is an oxymoron because the very scriptures tell us that we cannot find truth without the Holy Spirit.... even Catholics accept that it is the HOLY SPIRIT that leads into truth.. they just claim He only leads their priests (note not in the bible!)

So the spiritual application of sola scriptura is that the scriptures are the ONLY physical definitive infallible source of truth but that is God Himself who opens the truths within those scriptures to whom He wills.

Naturally at this point Catholics like to jump on the argument of many minds / many doctrines as if this defeats the truth in it. The fact that some listen and obey the "living and active" word and some say they do but don't doesn't change anything.

The idea that there MUST be definitive doctrine is a Catholic invention not born out by the evidence of Christian or Jewish history (even Catholicism) nor by the bible examples we are given. Ironically enough even when God's word was not living and active and we had no personal relationship (because His rules were written in stone), men argued as to the application, interpretation and meaning of scriptures. Only fools would ignore this reality and claim it's different now!

Secondly, Catholics often take scripture then claim secret understanding which in effect negates or undermines the scripture. A good example here is in this kind of debate Catholics try to claim UNITY as a sign of Christs church. To do so they rely almost exclusively on " I pray that they will all be one, just as you and I are one" and claim this is PROMISE or PROPHECY. It's quite plainly nothing of the sort. It's a prayer by Christ to His Father... a request. Nothing more nothing less. Claiming it's more in order to gain authority is at best ridiculous and at worst blasphemy. Furthermore Christ ask the Father for things in His life and were not granted ("Take this cup from me..")

This is a great example of confused Catholicism or shall we say "sola ecclessia" where the church applies it's ultimate authority to contradict the "living and active" word. There are MANY others.

Thirdly, the idea that without the church Christianity is nothing less than usurping the authority of God. God does not need the church. The church needs God and that's a problem for Catholics since in their view the church is an organisation with authority and power. The brutal reality is that the ONLY example of church the bible gives is off people collectively operating as "church"..not a formal organisation (note the major differences and squabbling in the bible). This is where Catholics try to ride two horses and get caught in the middle!

On the one hand they say that God has protected the purity and truth of His word through the bishops that represent His church but in doing so they have to admit that such bishops and Pope's lost their freewill to operate as sinfilled men (at least in some measure). Not only is this not biblical (no instruction, definition or examples of it but many to the contrary) but that it flies in the face of the obvious reality that through many parts of Catholic history the very men who righteously protected the truth of God were flagerantly disobeying it's instruction. It's astounding !


Fourthly, Catholic doctrine and biblie interpretation has flip and flopped in some areas, evolve in other areas and be conspicious by absence in others. If God and indeed God's people are totally reliant on the authority of the church then God and His people are in trouble! Frankly, Catholicism is full of "make it up as we go" theology which is even examplified in the original posting... 2 Timothy 3:16-17, clearly says that scripture is sufficient! Materially sufficient, not formally sufficient. Huh? It's accepted that scripture is sufficient but sufficiency is divided into material and formal! Come on you're making that up! It's not in the bible and certainly wasn't taught by the apostles! Sufficient is sufficient. The key word key is "aritos" as in made perfect. The bible is clearly saying that men can be made PERFECT through God's word... not through the church, a priest, a bishop or even a Pope... through HIS word.

I've written enough........
 
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wilts43

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Then it seems a pointless debate. What Catholics see as sacred scripture will always (to them) agree with their sacred tradition. How can anyone argue that? The better question and debate is "does Catholic tradition agree with New Testament teachings?"
God Bless
Jax
But what the New Testament is in itself (Ie the books included) comes from Catholic Tradition.
It comes from the authority of the Catholic Bishops in Councils, as divinely guaranteed shepherds, to discern infallibly what is (& what wasn't) "canonical scripture".
Luther took out books from the OT 1300 years later, and he wanted to remove James from the NT, but wiser councils prevailed.
Since the Table-of-Contents is not in the Bible, but is a list discerned by Catholic Councils.........is it infallible?
It is not consistent to accept The Catholic Church as infallible in interpreting infallibly what should be in The Bible but not infallible in interpreting it!
If you don't accept Christ's creation, His Church, as infallible to discern what is the word of God (& interpret it) you are left with (at best) What R.C. Sproul considered to be “a fallible collection of infallible books.” Which means you have no certain ground at all.

That the Catholic Church as "tradition" precedes the canon is historical fact.
That the Catholic Church as "tradition" decided the canon on its authority is historical fact.
The tradition (and the living organic fact) of The Church, is wider & deeper than scripture. Scripture is "The Family History Library" of The Catholic Church.
So scripture is "normative & formative" and is not contradicted by the Church which decides scripture & interprets it.
And scripture itself tells you this.

John 21:25 "Jesus did many other things as well. If every one of them were written down, I suppose that even the whole world would not have room for the books that would be written."

In Acts 20:35 it says "Lord Jesus himself said: 'It is more blessed to give than to receive.'" If you look in the Gospels, you will not see this phrase. So the apostle obviously received this orally, by someone who knew Jesus and quotes from this tradition.

The New Testament is plainly not written as a Church-Creating-Manual....but that is how many Protestant reformers have treated it since 17th Century of Christianity, especially in America.
The Epistles make far more sense as happenstantial survivals of letters from authority to deal with local problems.
This structure, authority & oral tradition come directly from Judaism.....which Christianity is.
You will understand this far more if you realise The Catholic Church (Kingdom-of-God) is "Judaism-fulfilled" not a new religion. Jesus "came to fulfil theLaw not to abolish it"
It is Jewish.....The Apostles didn't need to say this. They just got on doing things the Jewish way and The Jews had The Torah, Law & Prophets scriptures but also the oral Talmud/Mishnah.
And in the times of The Davidic Kings there was a Royal Steward to rule as the King's deputy. Jesus as the Davidic Messiah-King deliberately reinstitutes this (See & Compare Matt16:18 & Is 22:20-23)
 
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