Love is fulfillment of the law?

Neostarwcc

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In Romans 13:10 Paul says:

"Love does no harm to a neighbor. Therefore love is the fulfillment of the law."

If love is fulfillment of law then why did Jesus tell us to keep the law in John 14:15?

"If you love me, keep my commands."

and again in Matthew 5:17-19:

"Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. For truly I tell you, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished. Therefore anyone who sets aside one of the least of these commands and teaches others accordingly will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever practices and teaches these commands will be called great in the kingdom of heaven."


Also, if Jesus fulfilled the law why do we need love to fulfill the law and why would Jesus say "keep the law"? If we are no longer under the law like Paul says in Romans 6:14? I'm confused.
 
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Lucian Hodoboc

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I'm guessing that what Paul meant was that love is the foundation of keeping the commandments. Once you love God and you love your neighbor as yourself, you are very likely to want the best for your fellow humans, therefore you will honor your parents, abstain from stealing, murdering, committing adultery etc.
 
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Neostarwcc

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I'm guessing that what Paul meant was that love is the foundation of keeping the commandments. Once you love God and you love your neighbor as yourself, you are very likely to want the best for your fellow humans, therefore you will honor your parents, abstain from stealing, murdering, committing adultery etc.

That is true. It does make sense that that's what Paul meant. But, if we are no longer under the law But are under grace why did Jesus say to keep the law? Is there something I'm missing?
 
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razzelflabben

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That is true. It does make sense that that's what Paul meant. But, if we are no longer under the law But are under grace why did Jesus say to keep the law? Is there something I'm missing?
The law is there for two reasons, 1. for our benefit and 2. to show us how far we are from the God who Loves us so purely. If we truly Love God with all our hearts, soul, mind and strength we will want to obey His commands because of the beauty and truth that they hold. It's an act of Love toward our Lord and King to obey because it demonstrates and understanding as well as a changed life to allow Him to strengthen us unto obedience.
 
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AlexDTX

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In Romans 13:10 Paul says:

"Love does no harm to a neighbor. Therefore love is the fulfillment of the law."

If love is fulfillment of law then why did Jesus tell us to keep the law in John 14:15?

"If you love me, keep my commands."

There is a hierarchy of law. In the US we have local ordinances, we have state laws, we have federal laws and the supreme law of the land used to be the US Constitution. Every law has to conform to the Constitution.

Likewise with God. The Mosaic Law is subordinate to the Law of life.
Rom_8:2 For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death.
That life is the law of love which rules over the Mosaic law.

Also, when Jesus said, "If you love me, keep my commands" it is not necessarily a statement of duty. Rather it is a declaration that because we love Jesus we keep his commands, and his command is to love one another as he loved us.

and again in Matthew 5:17-19:

"Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. For truly I tell you, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished. Therefore anyone who sets aside one of the least of these commands and teaches others accordingly will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever practices and teaches these commands will be called great in the kingdom of heaven."

The higher law of life was speaking to those who were under the lower Mosaic law. He was relating to them according to what they knew. He was trying to explain that there was a higher law than the Mosaic law. This is why he said that if you look upon a woman with lust you have already committed adultery. He was showing them that the law of love is deeper than the outward Mosaic law.

Also, if Jesus fulfilled the law why do we need love to fulfill the law and why would Jesus say "keep the law"? If we are no longer under the law like Paul says in Romans 6:14? I'm confused.
Love is a choice. Just as obedience to the Mosaic law is a choice. Gentiles were never under the law. The book of Romans was written to Messianic Jews in Rome who knew the Mosaic law. There were some Gentile believers, of course, but most of the Christians during that time were still Jews. Note what he says in Chapter 7:

Rom 7:1 Know ye not, brethren, (for I speak to them that know the law,) how that the law hath dominion over a man as long as he liveth?

His brethren were fellow Israelis who knew the law.
 
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mukk_in

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In Romans 13:10 Paul says:

"Love does no harm to a neighbor. Therefore love is the fulfillment of the law."

If love is fulfillment of law then why did Jesus tell us to keep the law in John 14:15?

"If you love me, keep my commands."

and again in Matthew 5:17-19:

"Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. For truly I tell you, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished. Therefore anyone who sets aside one of the least of these commands and teaches others accordingly will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever practices and teaches these commands will be called great in the kingdom of heaven."


Also, if Jesus fulfilled the law why do we need love to fulfill the law and why would Jesus say "keep the law"? If we are no longer under the law like Paul says in Romans 6:14? I'm confused.
As others have responded here, since love is the fulfilment of the law loving includes abiding by the law (That's my guess).
 
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OldWiseGuy

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In Romans 13:10 Paul says:

"Love does no harm to a neighbor. Therefore love is the fulfillment of the law."

If love is fulfillment of law then why did Jesus tell us to keep the law in John 14:15?

"If you love me, keep my commands."

and again in Matthew 5:17-19:

"Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. For truly I tell you, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished. Therefore anyone who sets aside one of the least of these commands and teaches others accordingly will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever practices and teaches these commands will be called great in the kingdom of heaven."


Also, if Jesus fulfilled the law why do we need love to fulfill the law and why would Jesus say "keep the law"? If we are no longer under the law like Paul says in Romans 6:14? I'm confused.

Jesus remained under the Law while the law was in force. Paul explains the changes in the laws later, which would 'flesh out' the true meaning of the law.
 
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OldWiseGuy

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The higher law of life was speaking to those who were under the lower Mosaic law. He was relating to them according to what they knew. He was trying to explain that there was a higher law than the Mosaic law. This is why he said that if you look upon a woman with lust you have already committed adultery. He was showing them that the law of love is deeper than the outward Mosaic law.

Actually this example was intended to show that the written law goes deeper that is generally thought, to the inward thoughts and desires. The 'higher' law is the antithesis of the 'lower' law.
 
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HereIStand

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Now, amidst this admirable correspondence, there is at least this very considerable diversity in the cases, in that the people in the earlier instance were deterred by a horrible dread from approaching the place where the law was given; whereas in the other case the Holy Ghost came upon them who were gathered together in expectation of His promised gift. There it was on tables of stone that the finger of God operated; here it was on the hearts of men. There the law was given outwardly, so that the unrighteous might be terrified; here it was given inwardly, so that they might be justified. Acts 2:1-47 For this, You shall not commit adultery, You shall not kill, You shall not covet; and if there be any other commandment,— such, of course, as was written on those tables—it is briefly comprehended, says he, in this saying, namely, You shall love your neighbour as yourself. Love works no ill to his neighbour: therefore love is the fulfilling of the law. Romans 13:9-10 Now this was not written on the tables of stone, but is shed abroad in our hearts by the Holy Ghost, which is given unto us. Romans 5:5 God's law, therefore, is love. To it the carnal mind is not subject, neither indeed can be; Romans 8:7 but when the works of love are written on tables to alarm the carnal mind, there arises the law of works and the letter which kills the transgressor; but when love itself is shed abroad in the hearts of believers, then we have the law of faith, and the spirit which gives life to him that loves.

Taken from CHURCH FATHERS: On the Spirit and the Letter (St. Augustine)
 
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Neostarwcc

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There is a hierarchy of law. In the US we have local ordinances, we have state laws, we have federal laws and the supreme law of the land used to be the US Constitution. Every law has to conform to the Constitution.

Likewise with God. The Mosaic Law is subordinate to the Law of life.
Rom_8:2 For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death.
That life is the law of love which rules over the Mosaic law.

Also, when Jesus said, "If you love me, keep my commands" it is not necessarily a statement of duty. Rather it is a declaration that because we love Jesus we keep his commands, and his command is to love one another as he loved us.



The higher law of life was speaking to those who were under the lower Mosaic law. He was relating to them according to what they knew. He was trying to explain that there was a higher law than the Mosaic law. This is why he said that if you look upon a woman with lust you have already committed adultery. He was showing them that the law of love is deeper than the outward Mosaic law.


Love is a choice. Just as obedience to the Mosaic law is a choice. Gentiles were never under the law. The book of Romans was written to Messianic Jews in Rome who knew the Mosaic law. There were some Gentile believers, of course, but most of the Christians during that time were still Jews. Note what he says in Chapter 7:

Rom 7:1 Know ye not, brethren, (for I speak to them that know the law,) how that the law hath dominion over a man as long as he liveth?

His brethren were fellow Israelis who knew the law.

Good post. So, when Jesus said "keep my commandments" he meant the two greatest commandments and not the 10 commandments?
 
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Halbhh

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In Romans 13:10 Paul says:

"Love does no harm to a neighbor. Therefore love is the fulfillment of the law."

If love is fulfillment of law then why did Jesus tell us to keep the law in John 14:15?

"If you love me, keep my commands."

and again in Matthew 5:17-19:

"Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. For truly I tell you, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished. Therefore anyone who sets aside one of the least of these commands and teaches others accordingly will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever practices and teaches these commands will be called great in the kingdom of heaven."


Also, if Jesus fulfilled the law why do we need love to fulfill the law and why would Jesus say "keep the law"? If we are no longer under the law like Paul says in Romans 6:14? I'm confused.

Because the now-fulfilled "Law" is completely this -- to Love God with all of your heart, mind, soul, and strength, and to love your neighbor as yourself. (Paul often wrote to Jews knowing the old covenant 'law', but not yet understanding the new fulfilled law from Christ)

Christ's further commandments to us are the ways to do these completely and well, such as to forgive each other fully, "from your heart". Following His commandment, we are to forgive totally, even in the heart. I have at least three times (probably more) needed to pray for aid to accomplish this "from the heart" -- do not neglect this! He said if we forgive we will be forgiven, and if we do not forgive, we will not be forgiven.

When I point this out about Christ commandments being the full law, I'm not guessing or simplifying, but reporting to you what you can discover by careful and full listening/reading of His Words. (For instance, for your quote in John 14, you can read that chapter and the next, and learn some of His commandments, to believe, and to love one another.)

And even though I'm reporting this to you, you must your own self do that reading/listening, so that you are among His sheep --

"My sheep listen to my voice; I know them, and they follow me."

We are to listen, and follow. This keeps us in His fold.
 
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Uber Genius

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If you are new to studying the scriptures I recommend a book like "How to read the bible for all it is worth," by Fee and Douglas.

Context is key. Both the John and Matt references are in an age before Christ has fulfilled the requirements of the law.

Matt 5 reference is in response to religious leaders. So to be read, "If you intend to be righteous by keeping the law here is what that looks like..." No sin in thought word or deed...PERIOD...NOT ONE ...YOU MUST BE PERFECT.

now does that sound like the gospel?

Exegesis and hermeneutics are your two new best friends.
 
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Halbhh

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If you are new to studying the scriptures I recommend a book like "How to read the bible for all it is worth," by Fee and Douglas.

Context is key. Both the John and Matt references are in an age before Christ has fulfilled the requirements of the law.

Matt 5 reference is in response to religious leaders. So to be read, "If you intend to be righteous by keeping the law here is what that looks like..." No sin in thought word or deed...PERIOD...NOT ONE ...YOU MUST BE PERFECT.

now does that sound like the gospel?

Exegesis and hermeneutics are your two new best friends.

As we read through the Sermon on the Mount, some may wonder if we are to do these things He says.

Once we read Matthew 7:24-27, suddenly we get the message about who His Words are for -- they are for us.

Do we need to listen to Him?

"My sheep listen to my voice; I know them, and they follow me."
 
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Soyeong

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In Romans 13:10 Paul says:

"Love does no harm to a neighbor. Therefore love is the fulfillment of the law."

If love is fulfillment of law then why did Jesus tell us to keep the law in John 14:15?

"If you love me, keep my commands."

and again in Matthew 5:17-19:

"Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. For truly I tell you, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished. Therefore anyone who sets aside one of the least of these commands and teaches others accordingly will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever practices and teaches these commands will be called great in the kingdom of heaven."


Also, if Jesus fulfilled the law why do we need love to fulfill the law and why would Jesus say "keep the law"? If we are no longer under the law like Paul says in Romans 6:14? I'm confused.

To fulfills the Law is a rabbinic term that means to cause God's will as made known in the Law to be obeyed as it should be. After Jesus said he came to fulfill the Law in Matthew 5:17, he then proceeded to fulfill it six times throughout the rest of the chapter by teaching how to correctly understand and obey it as it should be. In Matthew 22:36-40, Jesus summarized the Law as being instructions for how to love God and our neighbor, so love fulfills the law because that is showing a correct understanding of what the Law is essentially about how to do. In Galatians 5:14, Paul again said that loving your neighbor fulfills the entire Law, so everyone who has ever loved their neighbor has fulfilled the entire Law, which means that it does not refer to something unique that Jesus did to do away with it. Likewise, Galatians 6:2 says that bearing one another's burdens fulfills the Law of Christ, which again not referring to doing away with it, but to correctly obeying it as it should be. In Romans 15:18-19, it says that Paul fulfilled the Gospel, which does not refer to doing away with it, but to causing the Gentiles to become fully obedient to it in word and in deed. In John 14:23-24, Jesus said that if we love him, then we will obey His teachings, which were not his own, but that of the Father, so obedience to God's commands has always been about showing our love for Him and our neighbor.

It makes no sense whatsoever to interpret Romans 6:14 as referring to us not be under God's Law. For starters, it specifies that the law that we are not under is one where sin had dominion over him, which does not at all fit Paul's description of God's holy, righteous, and good Law, but perfectly fits his description of the law of sin. Furthermore, it wouldn't make any sense to say in verse 14 that we are under God's Law, but then say in verse 15 that being under grace doesn't mean that we are permitted to transgress God's Law. The surrounding verse in Romans 6:12-19 speak about not presenting our bodies as instruments of unrighteousness, but as instruments of righteousness, that we are we present ourselves to God as obedient slaves, which leads to righteousness, that we have been set free from sin to become obedient slaves of righteousness, that we are no longer to present ourselves as slaves of impurity and Lawlessness leading to more Lawlessness, but as slaves of righteousness leading to sanctification, so all of these verses are speaking about submitting to God's Law by grace.

According to Psalms 119:29, David asked God to show His grace to him by teaching him to obey His Law. According to Titus 2:11-14, our salvation involves being trained by grace to do things that are in perfect accordance with what the Law was given to instruct us how to do. According to Romans 1:5, we have received grace in order to bring about the that faith requires. According to John 1:16-17, grace was added upon grace, so the grace of Christ was added upon the grace of the Law. According to Jude 1:4, those who are ungodly pervert God's grace into a license to sin, and sin is defined as the transgression of God's Law (1 John 3:4). According to Strong's, "grace" is defined as "the divine influence upon the heart, and its reflection in the life" and when God's will is reflected in our lives, it takes the form of obedience to His commands. So if we are under grace, then we are under God's Law.
 
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Uber Genius

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As we read through the Sermon on the Mount, we can imagine ways to reduce the import of His Words. All sorts of responses are possible....but we know, in our hearts.

Once we read Matthew 7:24-27, suddenly we get the message about who His Words are for -- they are for us.

Do we need to listen to Him?

"My sheep listen to my voice; I know them, and they follow me."
Hmm?

So you are misrepresenting my attempt to study the scripture to show myself approved, as Paul tells Timothy, as "Reducing the import of his words?"

That seems less than generous.

In fact it is attacking a straw man also known as a logical extension fallacy.

I gave the context.

Paul gives us a clear limit to keeping the law in Galatians 3, pointing to Jesus fulfillment of same and describing our attempts to do the same as ignorant, foolish, and bewitched!

See the book of Hebrews for a more developed reading.

Finally you give the universal cult methodology for hearing from the Lord, "My sheep hear my voice." Common to both Jehovah's Witnesses and Mormons.

I highly recommend the Fee and Douglas approach of exegesis as opposed to the postmodern, "At first glance without any study of context or original texts, or understanding of customs of author and audience, or knowledge of the original language, if I were to transfer the text to an English modern context it would mean ...X, y, z... By the way the Holy Spirit gave me an inner witness that my lack of trying and disdain for the revelation of the Holy Spirit that inspired the original author to communicate to the original audience is NOT valuable."

Seems a little incoherent.
 
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Soyeong

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There is a hierarchy of law. In the US we have local ordinances, we have state laws, we have federal laws and the supreme law of the land used to be the US Constitution. Every law has to conform to the Constitution.

Likewise with God. The Mosaic Law is subordinate to the Law of life.
Rom_8:2 For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death.
That life is the law of love which rules over the Mosaic law.

Also, when Jesus said, "If you love me, keep my commands" it is not necessarily a statement of duty. Rather it is a declaration that because we love Jesus we keep his commands, and his command is to love one another as he loved us.

Romans 7:21-25 So I find it to be a law that when I want to do right, evil lies close at hand. 22 For I delight in the law of God, in my inner being, 23 but I see in my members another law waging war against the law of my mind and making me captive to the law of sin that dwells in my members. 24 Wretched man that I am! Who will deliver me from this body of death? 25 Thanks be to God through Jesus Christ our Lord! So then, I myself serve the law of God with my mind, but with my flesh I serve the law of sin.

In Romans 7, Paul said that the Law is holy, righteous, and good, that he desired to to do what is good, and he delighted in obeying God's Law, and that he served God's Law with his mind, but that contrasted that with a law of sin that stirred up evil passions to bear fruit unto death, that held him captive, that caused him not to do the good that he wanted to do, and they he served with his flesh, so I see no grounds whatsoever to think that the Mosaic Law is the law of sin when he was clearly contrasting the two. According to Deuteronomy 30:15-20, the Mosaic Law brings life and a blessing for obedience, according to Proverbs 3:18, the Mosaic Law is a tree of life for all who take hold of he, and according to Matthew 19:17, Jesus said if we want to enter into life, then obey the commandments. According to Romans 6:14, sin will no longer have dominion over us for we are not under the law, but under grace, so he was speaking about us not being under the law of sin, where sin had dominion over us.

The higher law of life was speaking to those who were under the lower Mosaic law. He was relating to them according to what they knew. He was trying to explain that there was a higher law than the Mosaic law. This is why he said that if you look upon a woman with lust you have already committed adultery. He was showing them that the law of love is deeper than the outward Mosaic law.

When Jesus said that if we look upon a woman with lust we have already committed adultery, he was not sinning in violation of Deuteronomy 4:2 by giving a new or higher law, but rather he was was simply fulfilling the Law by teaching how to correctly understand and obey the 7th and 10th Commandments against adultery and coveting in our heart as they were originally intended to be understood.

Love is a choice. Just as obedience to the Mosaic law is a choice. Gentiles were never under the law. The book of Romans was written to Messianic Jews in Rome who knew the Mosaic law. There were some Gentile believers, of course, but most of the Christians during that time were still Jews. Note what he says in Chapter 7:

Rom 7:1 Know ye not, brethren, (for I speak to them that know the law,) how that the law hath dominion over a man as long as he liveth?

His brethren were fellow Israelis who knew the law.

Sin is defined as the transgression of the Mosaic Law and Christ set a sinless example for his followers to follow how to walk in obedience to it, so to say that Gentiles were never under the Law is to say that they have they are free to do what God revealed to be sin, that they have never needed to follow Christ, that they have never needed grace, and that they have never needed Christ to give himself to redeem them from all Lawlessness and to purify for himself a people of his own possession who are zealous for doing good works (Titus 2:14). It says that Jesus gave himself to redeem us from all Lawlessness, not to redeem us from the Law, but for those who nevertheless still hold that he gave himself to free Gentiles from the Law, it is inconsistent to hold that position and the position that Gentiles were never under the Law in the first place. If Gentiles were never under God's Law, then He had no grounds why which to judge the world with a flood. The book of Romans was written to address issues that came up when the Jews returned to Rome after Emperor Claudius had expulsed them, with Gentiles not wanting to come back under Jewish leadership, which they either did not heed or understand.
 
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razzelflabben

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Hope I can say this without an onslaught of insults...the primary difference I currently understand between the mosaic law and the law of Love is that of legalism which Jesus taught against and reprimanded the religious leaders for. That said, our Love for God should be both steeped in grace and obedience or it isn't Love at all. Our obedience should be in the power of the indwelling HS or it isn't obedience at all but rather it is the legalism of the law.

Hope that makes sense what I am saying and praying it is not twisted, manipulated and otherwise used to insult of start a fight.
 
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QUOTE="mmbattlestar, post: 71826313, member: 383061"]In Romans 13:10 Paul says:

"Love does no harm to a neighbor. Therefore love is the fulfillment of the law."

If love is fulfillment of law then why did Jesus tell us to keep the law in John 14:15?

"If you love me, keep my commands."

and again in Matthew 5:17-19:

"Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. For truly I tell you, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished. Therefore anyone who sets aside one of the least of these commands and teaches others accordingly will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever practices and teaches these commands will be called great in the kingdom of heaven."


Also, if Jesus fulfilled the law why do we need love to fulfill the law and why would Jesus say "keep the law"? If we are no longer under the law like Paul says in Romans 6:14? I'm confused.
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I think you may have answered your own question and did not realize it.

Think of it this way, perhaps, and see how this is in line with all Scripture with no contradiction at all, and no adding, and no taking away........ >

Love IS Obedience. (no, it is not a feeling, and no, it is not an emotion, as pertains to this thread/ post/ question/ faith/ salvation)
 
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